# US Amateur Radio Test Question Pool T1-T0

## Subelement T1

### T1A01

Which of the following is part of the Basis and Purpose of the Amateur Radio Service?

- A: Providing personal radio communications for as many citizens as possible
- B: All these choices are correct
- C: Providing communications for international non-profit organizations
- (D): Advancing skills in the technical and communication phases of the radio art

### T1A02

Which agency regulates and enforces the rules for the Amateur Radio Service in the United States?

- (A): The FCC
- B: Homeland Security
- C: All these choices are correct
- D: FEMA

### T1A03

What do the FCC rules state regarding the use of a phonetic alphabet for station identification in the Amateur Radio Service?

- A: All these choices are correct
- (B): It is encouraged
- C: It is required when in contact with foreign stations
- D: It is required when transmitting emergency messages

### T1A04

How many operator/primary station license grants may be held by any one person?

- (A): One
- B: One for each band on which the person plans to operate
- C: One for each permanent station location from which the person plans to operate
- D: No more than two

### T1A05

What proves that the FCC has issued an operator/primary license grant?

- A: An email notification from the NCVEC granting the license
- B: A printed copy of the certificate of successful completion of examination
- C: All these choices are correct
- (D): The license appears in the FCC ULS database

### T1A06

What is the FCC Part 97 definition of a beacon?

- A: A continuous transmission of weather information authorized in the amateur bands by the National Weather Service
- B: A government transmitter marking the amateur radio band edges
- (C): An amateur station transmitting communications for the purposes of observing propagation or related experimental activities
- D: A bulletin sent by the FCC to announce a national emergency

### T1A07

What is the FCC Part 97 definition of a space station?

- A: Any satellite orbiting Earth
- B: A manned satellite orbiting Earth
- (C): An amateur station located more than 50 km above Earth's surface
- D: An amateur station using amateur radio satellites for relay of signals

### T1A08

Which of the following entities recommends transmit/receive channels and other parameters for auxiliary and repeater stations?

- A: FCC Regional Field Office
- B: Frequency Spectrum Manager appointed by the FCC
- (C): Volunteer Frequency Coordinator recognized by local amateurs
- D: International Telecommunication Union

### T1A09

Who selects a Frequency Coordinator?

- A: FCC Regional Field Office
- B: The FCC Office of Spectrum Management and Coordination Policy
- C: The local chapter of the Office of National Council of Independent Frequency Coordinators
- (D): Amateur operators in a local or regional area whose stations are eligible to be repeater or auxiliary stations

### T1A10

What is the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES)?

- A: A radio service using amateur frequencies for emergency management or civil defense communications
- B: A radio service using amateur stations for emergency management or civil defense communications
- C: An emergency service using amateur operators certified by a civil defense organization as being enrolled in that organization
- (D): All these choices are correct

### T1A11

When is willful interference to other amateur radio stations permitted?

- A: To stop another amateur station that is breaking the FCC rules
- (B): At no time
- C: At any time, stations in the Amateur Radio Service are not protected from willful interference
- D: When making short test transmissions

### T1B01

Which of the following frequency ranges are available for phone operation by Technician licensees?

- A: 28.050 MHz to 28.150 MHz
- B: 28.500 MHz to 28.600 MHz
- C: 28.100 MHz to 28.300 MHz
- (D): 28.300 MHz to 28.500 MHz

### T1B02

Which amateurs may contact the International Space Station (ISS) on VHF bands?

- A: Any amateur holding a General class or higher license who has applied for and received approval from NASA
- B: Any amateur holding a Technician class or higher license who has applied for and received approval from NASA
- C: Any amateur holding a General class or higher license
- (D): Any amateur holding a Technician class or higher license

### T1B03

Which frequency is in the 6 meter amateur band?

- A: 28.50 MHz
- B: 222.15 MHz
- C: 49.00 MHz
- (D): 52.525 MHz

### T1B04

Which amateur band includes 146.52 MHz?

- A: 6 meters
- B: 70 centimeters
- (C): 2 meters
- D: 20 meters

### T1B05

How may amateurs use the 219 to 220 MHz segment of 1.25 meter band?

- (A): Fixed digital message forwarding systems only
- B: Emergency traffic only
- C: Spread spectrum only
- D: Fast-scan television only

### T1B06

On which HF bands does a Technician class operator have phone privileges?

- A: 80 meter, 40 meter, 15 meter, and 10 meter bands
- B: None
- (C): 10 meter band only
- D: 30 meter band only

### T1B07

Which of the following VHF/UHF band segments are limited to CW only?

- A: 902.0 MHz to 902.1 MHz
- B: 219 MHz to 220 MHz and 420.0 MHz to 420.1 MHz
- C: All these choices are correct
- (D): 50.0 MHz to 50.1 MHz and 144.0 MHz to 144.1 MHz

### T1B08

How are US amateurs restricted in segments of bands where the Amateur Radio Service is secondary?

- A: International communications are not permitted in those segments
- B: U.S. amateurs must give foreign amateur stations priority in those segments
- (C): U.S. amateurs may find non-amateur stations in those segments, and must avoid interfering with them
- D: Digital transmissions are not permitted in those segments

### T1B09

Why should you not set your transmit frequency to be exactly at the edge of an amateur band or sub-band?

- A: So that modulation sidebands do not extend beyond the band edge
- B: To allow for transmitter frequency drift
- C: To allow for calibration error in the transmitter frequency display
- (D): All these choices are correct

### T1B10

Where may SSB phone be used in amateur bands above 50 MHz?

- A: On any band if the power is limited to 25 watts
- (B): In at least some segment of all these bands
- C: Only in sub-bands allocated to General class or higher licensees
- D: Only on repeaters

### T1B11

What is the maximum peak envelope power output for Technician class operators in their HF band segments?

- A: 100 watts
- B: 10 watts
- (C): 200 watts
- D: 50 watts

### T1B12

Except for some specific restrictions, what is the maximum peak envelope power output for Technician class operators using frequencies above 30 MHz?

- A: 50 watts
- B: 500 watts
- C: 100 watts
- (D): 1500 watts

### T1C01

For which license classes are new licenses currently available from the FCC?

- A: Novice, Technician, General, Amateur Extra
- (B): Technician, General, Amateur Extra
- C: Technician, Technician Plus, General, Amateur Extra
- D: Novice, Technician Plus, General, Advanced

### T1C02

Who may select a desired call sign under the vanity call sign rules?

- A: Only a licensed amateur with a General or Amateur Extra Class license
- B: Only a licensed amateur who has been licensed continuously for more than 10 years
- C: Only a licensed amateur with an Amateur Extra Class license
- (D): Any licensed amateur

### T1C03

What types of international communications are an FCC-licensed amateur radio station permitted to make?

- (A): Communications incidental to the purposes of the Amateur Radio Service and remarks of a personal character
- B: Only communications incidental to contest exchanges; all other communications are prohibited
- C: Communications incidental to conducting business or remarks of a personal nature
- D: Any communications that would be permitted by an international broadcast station

### T1C04

What may happen if the FCC is unable to reach you by email?

- A: Nothing; there is no such requirement
- B: Revocation of access to the license record in the FCC system
- (C): Revocation of the station license or suspension of the operator license
- D: Fine and suspension of operator license

### T1C05

Which of the following is a valid Technician class call sign format?

- A: W1XX
- B: KA1X
- (C): KF1XXX
- D: All these choices are correct

### T1C06

From which of the following locations may an FCC-licensed amateur station transmit?

- (A): From any vessel or craft located in international waters and documented or registered in the United States
- B: From anywhere within International Telecommunication Union (ITU) Regions 2 and 3
- C: From within any country that belongs to the International Telecommunication Union
- D: From within any country that is a member of the United Nations

### T1C07

Which of the following can result in revocation of the station license or suspension of the operator license?

- A: Failure to inform the FCC of any changes in the amateur station following performance of an RF safety environmental evaluation
- (B): Failure to provide and maintain a correct email address with the FCC
- C: Failure to obtain FCC type acceptance prior to using a home-built transmitter
- D: Failure to have a copy of your license available at your station

### T1C08

What is the normal term for an FCC-issued amateur radio license?

- A: Five years
- (B): Ten years
- C: Eight years
- D: Life

### T1C09

What is the grace period for renewal if an amateur license expires?

- (A): Two years
- B: Five years
- C: Three years
- D: Ten years

### T1C10

How soon after passing the examination for your first amateur radio license may you transmit on the amateur radio bands?

- A: As soon as you receive your license in the mail from the FCC
- (B): As soon as your operator/station license grant appears in the FCC’s license database
- C: As soon as your operator/station license grant appears on the ARRL website
- D: Immediately on receiving your Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE)

### T1C11

If your license has expired and is still within the allowable grace period, may you continue to transmit on the amateur radio bands?

- A: Yes, as soon as you apply for renewal
- B: Yes, for up to one year
- C: Yes, for up to two years
- (D): No, you must wait until the license has been renewed

### T1D01

With which countries are FCC-licensed amateur radio stations prohibited from exchanging communications?

- A: Any country whose administration has notified the American Radio Relay League (ARRL) that it objects to such communications
- (B): Any country whose administration has notified the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) that it objects to such communications
- C: Any country banned from such communications by the International Amateur Radio Union (IARU)
- D: Any country banned from making such communications by the American Radio Relay League (ARRL)

### T1D02

Under which of the following circumstances are one-way transmissions by an amateur station prohibited?

- A: International Morse Code Practice
- B: Telecommand or transmissions of telemetry
- (C): Broadcasting
- D: In all circumstances

### T1D03

When is it permissible to transmit messages encoded to obscure their meaning?

- A: Only when transmitting certain approved digital codes
- (B): Only when transmitting control commands to space stations or radio control craft
- C: Only during contests
- D: Never

### T1D04

Under what conditions is an amateur station authorized to transmit music using a phone emission?

- A: When the music produces no spurious emissions
- B: When the music is transmitted above 1280 MHz
- C: When transmissions are limited to less than three minutes per hour
- (D): When incidental to an authorized retransmission of manned spacecraft communications

### T1D05

When may amateur radio operators use their stations to notify other amateurs of the availability of equipment for sale or trade?

- (A): When selling amateur radio equipment and not on a regular basis
- B: When no profit is made on the sale
- C: Never
- D: When the equipment is not the personal property of either the station licensee, or the control operator, or their close relatives

### T1D06

What, if any, are the restrictions concerning transmission of language that may be considered indecent or obscene?

- A: The ITU maintains a list of words that are not permitted to be used on amateur frequencies
- B: There is no such prohibition
- C: The FCC maintains a list of words that are not permitted to be used on amateur frequencies
- (D): Any such language is prohibited

### T1D07

What types of amateur stations can automatically retransmit the signals of other amateur stations?

- A: Auxiliary, beacon, or Earth stations
- B: Beacon, repeater, or space stations
- (C): Repeater, auxiliary, or space stations
- D: Earth, repeater, or space stations

### T1D08

In which of the following circumstances may the control operator of an amateur station receive compensation for operating that station?

- A: All these choices are correct
- B: When the communication is made to obtain emergency information for a local broadcast station
- (C): When the communication is incidental to classroom instruction at an educational institution
- D: When the communication is related to the sale of amateur equipment by the control operator's employer

### T1D09

When may amateur stations transmit information in support of broadcasting, program production, or news gathering, assuming no other means is available?

- A: Where noncommercial programming is gathered and supplied exclusively to the National Public Radio network
- B: When broadcasting communications to or from the space shuttle
- (C): When such communications are directly related to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property
- D: Never

### T1D10

How does the FCC define broadcasting for the Amateur Radio Service?

- A: Transmission of messages directed only to amateur operators
- (B): Transmissions intended for reception by the general public
- C: Two-way transmissions by amateur stations
- D: Any transmission made by the licensed station

### T1D11

When may an amateur station transmit without identifying on the air?

- A: When the transmissions are of a brief nature to make station adjustments
- (B): When transmitting signals to control model craft
- C: When the transmitted power level is below 1 watt
- D: When the transmissions are unmodulated

### T1E01

When may an amateur station transmit without a control operator?

- (A): Never
- B: When the transmitting station is an auxiliary station
- C: When using automatic control, such as in the case of a repeater
- D: When the station licensee is away and another licensed amateur is using the station

### T1E02

Who may be the control operator of a station communicating through an amateur satellite or space station?

- A: A General class or higher licensee with a satellite operator certification
- (B): Any amateur allowed to transmit on the satellite uplink frequency
- C: Only an Amateur Extra Class operator
- D: Only an Amateur Extra Class operator who is also an AMSAT member

### T1E03

Who must designate the station control operator?

- A: Any licensed operator
- B: The FCC
- C: The frequency coordinator
- (D): The station licensee

### T1E04

What determines the transmitting frequency privileges of an amateur station?

- A: The frequencies printed on the license grant
- B: The frequency authorized by the frequency coordinator
- (C): The class of operator license held by the control operator
- D: The highest class of operator license held by anyone on the premises

### T1E05

What is an amateur station’s control point?

- A: The mailing address of the station licensee
- (B): The location at which the control operator function is performed
- C: The location of the station’s transmitting apparatus
- D: The location of the station’s transmitting antenna

### T1E06

When, under normal circumstances, may a Technician class licensee be the control operator of a station operating in an Amateur Extra Class band segment?

- A: When using a club station whose trustee holds an Amateur Extra Class license
- B: When designated as the control operator by an Amateur Extra Class licensee
- C: As part of a multi-operator contest team
- (D): At no time

### T1E07

When the control operator is not the station licensee, who is responsible for the proper operation of the station?

- (A): The control operator and the station licensee
- B: All licensed amateurs who are present at the operation
- C: Only the station licensee
- D: Only the control operator

### T1E08

Which of the following is an example of automatic control?

- A: Using a computer or other device to send CW automatically
- B: Controlling a station over the internet
- C: Using a computer or other device to identify automatically
- (D): Repeater operation

### T1E09

Which of the following are required for remote control operation?

- (A): All these choices are correct
- B: The control operator must be at the control point
- C: A control operator is required at all times
- D: The control operator must indirectly manipulate the controls

### T1E10

Which of the following is an example of remote control as defined in Part 97?

- A: All these choices are correct
- (B): Operating the station over the internet
- C: Repeater operation
- D: Controlling a model aircraft, boat, or car by amateur radio

### T1E11

Who does the FCC presume to be the control operator of an amateur station, unless documentation to the contrary is in the station records?

- A: The person operating the station equipment
- B: The third party participant
- (C): The station licensee
- D: The station custodian

### T1F01

When must the station and its records be available for FCC inspection?

- A: At any time ten days after notification by the FCC of such an inspection
- (B): At any time upon request by an FCC representative
- C: At any time after written notification by the FCC of such inspection
- D: Only when presented with a valid warrant by an FCC official or government agent

### T1F02

How often must you identify with your FCC-assigned call sign when using tactical call signs such as “Race Headquarters”?

- A: At the end of every transmission
- B: Never, the tactical call is sufficient
- C: Once during every hour
- (D): At the end of each communication and every ten minutes during a communication

### T1F03

When are you required to transmit your assigned call sign?

- A: At least once during each transmission
- (B): At least every 10 minutes during and at the end of a communication
- C: At the beginning of each contact, and every 10 minutes thereafter
- D: At least every 15 minutes during and at the end of a communication

### T1F04

What language may you use for identification when operating in a phone sub-band?

- (A): English
- B: English, French, or Spanish
- C: Any language recognized by the ITU
- D: Any language recognized by the United Nations

### T1F05

What method of call sign identification is required for a station transmitting phone signals?

- A: Send the call sign using only a phone emission
- B: Send the call sign followed by the indicator R
- C: Send the call sign followed by the indicator RPT
- (D): Send the call sign using a CW or phone emission

### T1F06

Which of the following self-assigned indicators are acceptable when using a phone transmission?

- (A): All these choices are correct
- B: KL7CC slant W3
- C: KL7CC slash W3
- D: KL7CC stroke W3

### T1F07

Which of the following restrictions apply when a non-licensed person is allowed to speak to a foreign station using a station under the control of a licensed amateur operator?

- A: All these choices are correct
- (B): The foreign station must be in a country with which the U.S. has a third party agreement
- C: The licensed control operator must do the station identification
- D: The person must be a U.S. citizen

### T1F08

What is the definition of third party communications?

- A: Amateur radio communications where three stations are in communications with one another
- (B): A message from a control operator to another amateur station control operator on behalf of another person
- C: Operation when the transmitting equipment is licensed to a person other than the control operator
- D: Temporary authorization for an unlicensed person to transmit on the amateur bands for technical experiments

### T1F09

What type of amateur station simultaneously retransmits the signal of another amateur station on a different channel or channels?

- A: Earth station
- (B): Repeater station
- C: Message forwarding station
- D: Beacon station

### T1F10

Who is accountable if a repeater inadvertently retransmits communications that violate the FCC rules?

- (A): The control operator of the originating station
- B: The control operator of the repeater
- C: The owner of the repeater
- D: Both the originating station and the repeater owner

### T1F11

Which of the following is a requirement for the issuance of a club station license grant?

- A: The club must be registered with the American Radio Relay League
- (B): The club must have at least four members
- C: All these choices are correct
- D: The trustee must have an Amateur Extra Class operator license grant

## Subelement T2

### T2A01

What is a common repeater frequency offset in the 2 meter band?

- A: Plus or minus 1 MHz
- (B): Plus or minus 600 kHz
- C: Plus or minus 5 MHz
- D: Plus or minus 500 kHz

### T2A02

What is the national calling frequency for FM simplex operations in the 2 meter band?

- A: 446.000 MHz
- B: 432.100 MHz
- (C): 146.520 MHz
- D: 145.000 MHz

### T2A03

What is a common repeater frequency offset in the 70 cm band?

- (A): Plus or minus 5 MHz
- B: Plus or minus 600 kHz
- C: Plus or minus 1 MHz
- D: Plus or minus 500 kHz

### T2A04

What is an appropriate way to call another station on a repeater if you know the other station's call sign?

- A: Say "break, break," then say the station's call sign
- (B): Say the station's call sign, then identify with your call sign
- C: Wait for the station to call CQ, then answer
- D: Say "CQ" three times, then the other station's call sign

### T2A05

How should you respond to a station calling CQ?

- A: Transmit "CQ" followed by the other station’s call sign
- B: Transmit your call sign followed by the other station’s call sign
- (C): Transmit the other station’s call sign followed by your call sign
- D: Transmit a signal report followed by your call sign

### T2A06

Which of the following is required when making on-the-air test transmissions?

- A: Conduct tests only between 10 p.m. and 6 a.m. local time
- B: All these choices are correct
- (C): Identify the transmitting station
- D: Notify the FCC of the transmissions

### T2A07

What is meant by "repeater offset”?

- A: The number of simultaneous transmit frequencies used by a repeater
- B: The repeater station identification is done on a separate frequency
- (C): The difference between a repeater’s transmit and receive frequencies
- D: The repeater has a time delay to prevent interference

### T2A08

What is the meaning of the procedural signal “CQ”?

- A: Only the called station should transmit
- B: Call on the quarter hour
- C: Test transmission, no reply expected
- (D): Calling any station

### T2A09

Which of the following indicates that a station is listening on a repeater and looking for a contact?

- A: “CQ CQ” followed by the repeater’s call sign
- B: “QSY” followed by your call sign
- (C): The station’s call sign followed by the word “monitoring”
- D: The repeater call sign followed by the station’s call sign

### T2A10

What is a band plan, beyond the privileges established by the FCC?

- A: A plan devised by a club to indicate frequency band usage
- B: A list of operating schedules
- C: A list of available net frequencies
- (D): A voluntary guideline for using different modes or activities within an amateur band

### T2A11

What term describes an amateur station that is transmitting and receiving on the same frequency?

- A: Multiplex
- B: Full duplex
- C: Diplex
- (D): Simplex

### T2A12

What should you do before calling CQ?

- (A): All these choices are correct
- B: Listen first to be sure that no one else is using the frequency
- C: Ask if the frequency is in use
- D: Make sure you are authorized to use that frequency

### T2B01

How is a VHF/UHF transceiver’s “reverse” function used?

- A: To reduce power output
- (B): To listen on a repeater’s input frequency
- C: To increase power output
- D: To listen on a repeater’s output frequency

### T2B02

What term describes the use of a sub-audible tone transmitted along with normal voice audio to open the squelch of a receiver?

- (A): CTCSS
- B: DTMF
- C: Tone burst
- D: Carrier squelch

### T2B03

Which of the following describes a linked repeater network?

- A: Multiple repeaters with the same control operator
- B: A system of repeaters linked by APRS
- C: A single repeater with more than one receiver
- (D): A network of repeaters in which signals received by one repeater are transmitted by all the repeaters in the network

### T2B04

Which of the following could be the reason you are unable to access a repeater whose output you can hear?

- A: You are using the wrong CTCSS tone
- (B): All these choices are correct
- C: You are using the wrong DCS code
- D: Improper transceiver offset

### T2B05

What would cause your FM transmission audio to be distorted on voice peaks?

- A: Your transmit power is too high
- (B): You are talking too loudly
- C: Your repeater offset is inverted
- D: You need to talk louder

### T2B06

What type of signaling uses pairs of audio tones?

- A: D-STAR
- B: CTCSS
- C: GPRS
- (D): DTMF

### T2B07

How can you join a digital repeater’s “talkgroup”?

- A: Join the repeater owner’s club
- B: Sign your call after the courtesy tone
- (C): Program your radio with the group’s ID or code
- D: Register your radio with the local FCC office

### T2B08

Which of the following applies when two stations transmitting on the same frequency interfere with each other?

- A: Interference is inevitable, so no action is required
- B: Use subaudible tones so both stations can share the frequency
- (C): The stations should negotiate continued use of the frequency
- D: Both stations should choose another frequency to avoid conflict

### T2B09

Why are simplex channels designated in the VHF/UHF band plans?

- A: So stations with simple transmitters can access the repeater without automated offset
- B: For contest operation
- C: For working DX only
- (D): So stations within range of each other can communicate without tying up a repeater

### T2B10

Which Q signal indicates that you are receiving interference from other stations?

- (A): QRM
- B: QSB
- C: QTH
- D: QRN

### T2B11

Which Q signal indicates that you are changing frequency?

- A: QRZ
- B: QSL
- (C): QSY
- D: QRU

### T2B12

What is the purpose of the color code used on DMR repeater systems?

- (A): Must match the repeater color code for access
- B: Identifies the codec used
- C: Defines the minimum signal level required for access
- D: Defines the frequency pair to use

### T2B13

What is the purpose of a squelch function?

- (A): Mute the receiver audio when a signal is not present
- B: Reduce interference from impulse noise
- C: Reduce a CW transmitter's key clicks
- D: Eliminate parasitic oscillations in an RF amplifier

### T2C01

When do FCC rules NOT apply to the operation of an amateur station?

- (A): FCC rules always apply
- B: When operating under special ARES rules
- C: When operating under special FEMA rules
- D: When operating a RACES station

### T2C02

Which of the following are typical duties of a Net Control Station?

- A: All these choices are correct
- B: Choose the regular net meeting time and frequency
- (C): Call the net to order and direct communications between stations checking in
- D: Ensure that all stations checking into the net are properly licensed for operation on the net frequency

### T2C03

What technique is used to ensure that voice messages containing unusual words are received correctly?

- A: Send the words by voice and Morse code
- B: All these choices are correct
- C: Speak very loudly into the microphone
- (D): Spell the words using a standard phonetic alphabet

### T2C04

What is RACES?

- A: A radio contest held in a short period, sometimes called a “sprint”
- B: An emergency organization combining amateur radio and citizens band operators and frequencies
- (C): An FCC part 97 amateur radio service for civil defense communications during national emergencies
- D: An international radio experimentation society

### T2C05

What does the term “traffic” refer to in net operation?

- A: The number of stations checking in and out of a net
- B: Requests to activate the net by a served agency
- (C): Messages exchanged by net stations
- D: Operation by mobile or portable stations

### T2C06

What is the Amateur Radio Emergency Service (ARES)?

- A: A training program that certifies amateur operators for membership in the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service
- B: A training program that provides licensing courses for those interested in obtaining an amateur license to use during emergencies
- (C): A group of licensed amateurs who have voluntarily registered their qualifications and equipment for communications duty in the public service
- D: A group of licensed amateurs who are members of the military and who voluntarily agreed to provide message handling services in the case of an emergency

### T2C07

Which of the following is standard practice when you participate in a net?

- (A): Unless you are reporting an emergency, transmit only when directed by the net control station
- B: When first responding to the net control station, transmit your call sign, name, and address as in the FCC database
- C: Record the time of each of your transmissions
- D: All these choices are correct

### T2C08

Which of the following is a characteristic of good traffic handling?

- (A): Passing messages exactly as received
- B: Ensuring that any newsworthy messages are relayed to the news media
- C: Making decisions as to whether messages are worthy of relay or delivery
- D: All these choices are correct

### T2C09

Are amateur station control operators ever permitted to operate outside the frequency privileges of their license class?

- A: Yes, but only when part of a FEMA emergency plan
- (B): Yes, but only in situations involving the immediate safety of human life or protection of property
- C: No
- D: Yes, but only when part of a RACES emergency plan

### T2C10

What information is contained in the preamble of a formal traffic message?

- A: The email address of the originating station
- B: The telephone number of the addressee
- C: The address of the intended recipient
- (D): Information needed to track the message

### T2C11

What is meant by “check” in a radiogram header?

- A: A box on the message form that indicates that the message was received and/or relayed
- (B): The number of words or word equivalents in the text portion of the message
- C: The call sign of the originating station
- D: A list of stations that have relayed the message

## Subelement T3

### T3A01

Why do VHF signal strengths sometimes vary greatly when the antenna is moved only a few feet?

- A: VHF ionospheric propagation is very sensitive to path length
- B: All these choices are correct
- C: The signal path encounters different concentrations of water vapor
- (D): Multipath propagation cancels or reinforces signals

### T3A02

What is the effect of vegetation on UHF and microwave signals?

- A: Polarization rotation
- B: Amplification
- C: Knife-edge diffraction
- (D): Absorption

### T3A03

What antenna polarization is normally used for long-distance CW and SSB contacts on the VHF and UHF bands?

- A: Vertical
- B: Right-hand circular
- C: Left-hand circular
- (D): Horizontal

### T3A04

What happens when antennas at opposite ends of a VHF or UHF line of sight radio link are not using the same polarization?

- (A): Received signal strength is reduced
- B: Signals have an echo effect
- C: Nothing significant will happen
- D: The modulation sidebands might become inverted

### T3A05

When using a directional antenna, how might your station be able to communicate with a distant repeater if buildings or obstructions are blocking the direct line of sight path?

- (A): Try to find a path that reflects signals to the repeater
- B: Increase the antenna SWR
- C: Change from vertical to horizontal polarization
- D: Try the long path

### T3A06

What is the meaning of the term “picket fencing”?

- A: A type of ground system used with vertical antennas
- B: Local vs long-distance communications
- (C): Rapid flutter on mobile signals due to multipath propagation
- D: Alternating transmissions during a net operation

### T3A07

What weather condition might decrease range at microwave frequencies?

- A: Colder temperatures
- B: High winds
- C: Low barometric pressure
- (D): Precipitation

### T3A08

What is a likely cause of irregular fading of signals propagated by the ionosphere?

- A: Interference from thunderstorms
- (B): Random combining of signals arriving via different paths
- C: Intermodulation distortion
- D: Frequency shift due to Faraday rotation

### T3A09

Which of the following results from the fact that signals propagated by the ionosphere are elliptically polarized?

- A: FM voice is unusable
- B: Both the transmitting and receiving antennas must be of the same polarization
- C: Digital modes are unusable
- (D): Either vertically or horizontally polarized antennas may be used for transmission or reception

### T3A10

What effect does multi-path propagation have on data transmissions?

- A: Transmission rates must be increased by a factor equal to the number of separate paths observed
- (B): Error rates are likely to increase
- C: No significant changes will occur if the signals are transmitted using FM
- D: Transmission rates must be decreased by a factor equal to the number of separate paths observed

### T3A11

Which region of the atmosphere can refract or bend HF and VHF radio waves?

- (A): The ionosphere
- B: The troposphere
- C: The mesosphere
- D: The stratosphere

### T3A12

What is the effect of fog and rain on signals in the 10 meter and 6 meter bands?

- A: Absorption
- (B): There is little effect
- C: Range increase
- D: Deflection

### T3B01

What is the relationship between the electric and magnetic fields of an electromagnetic wave?

- A: They travel at different speeds
- B: They revolve in opposite directions
- C: They are in parallel
- (D): They are at right angles

### T3B02

What property of a radio wave defines its polarization?

- A: The orientation of the magnetic field
- B: The ratio of the velocity to the wavelength
- (C): The orientation of the electric field
- D: The ratio of the energy in the magnetic field to the energy in the electric field

### T3B03

What are the two components of a radio wave?

- (A): Electric and magnetic fields
- B: Ionizing and non-ionizing radiation
- C: Voltage and current
- D: Impedance and reactance

### T3B04

What is the velocity of a radio wave traveling through free space?

- A: Speed inversely proportional to its wavelength
- B: Speed of sound
- (C): Speed of light
- D: Speed that increases as the frequency increases

### T3B05

What is the relationship between wavelength and frequency?

- A: Wavelength and frequency increase as path length increases
- (B): Wavelength gets shorter as frequency increases
- C: Wavelength and frequency are unrelated
- D: Wavelength gets longer as frequency increases

### T3B06

What is the formula for converting frequency to approximate wavelength in meters?

- A: Wavelength in meters equals frequency in megahertz divided by 300
- B: Wavelength in meters equals frequency in hertz divided by 300
- (C): Wavelength in meters equals 300 divided by frequency in megahertz
- D: Wavelength in meters equals frequency in hertz multiplied by 300

### T3B07

In addition to frequency, which of the following is used to identify amateur radio bands?

- A: Traditional letter/number designators
- B: Channel numbers
- (C): The approximate wavelength in meters
- D: All these choices are correct

### T3B08

What frequency range is referred to as VHF?

- A: 300 MHz to 3000 MHz
- B: 30 kHz to 300 kHz
- (C): 30 MHz to 300 MHz
- D: 300 kHz to 3000 kHz

### T3B09

What frequency range is referred to as UHF?

- A: 30 to 300 MHz
- B: 300 to 3000 kHz
- C: 30 to 300 kHz
- (D): 300 to 3000 MHz

### T3B10

What frequency range is referred to as HF?

- A: 30 to 300 MHz
- B: 300 to 3000 kHz
- C: 300 to 3000 MHz
- (D): 3 to 30 MHz

### T3B11

What is the approximate velocity of a radio wave in free space?

- A: 150,000 miles per hour
- (B): 300,000,000 meters per second
- C: 150,000 meters per second
- D: 300,000,000 miles per hour

### T3C01

Why are simplex UHF signals rarely heard beyond their radio horizon?

- A: UHF signals are absorbed by the ionospheric D region
- (B): UHF signals are usually not propagated by the ionosphere
- C: FCC regulations prohibit them from going more than 50 miles
- D: They are too weak to go very far

### T3C02

What is a characteristic of HF communication compared with communications on VHF and higher frequencies?

- (A): Long-distance ionospheric propagation is far more common on HF
- B: There is less atmospheric interference (static) on HF
- C: HF antennas are generally smaller
- D: HF accommodates wider bandwidth signals

### T3C03

What is a characteristic of VHF signals received via auroral backscatter?

- A: They occur only during winter nighttime hours
- B: They are generally strongest when your antenna is aimed west
- C: They are often received from 10,000 miles or more
- (D): They are distorted and signal strength varies considerably

### T3C04

Which of the following types of propagation is most commonly associated with occasional strong signals on the 10, 6, and 2 meter bands from beyond the radio horizon?

- (A): Sporadic E
- B: D region absorption
- C: Gray-line propagation
- D: Backscatter

### T3C05

Which of the following effects may allow radio signals to travel beyond obstructions between the transmitting and receiving stations?

- A: Quantum tunneling
- (B): Knife-edge diffraction
- C: Doppler shift
- D: Faraday rotation

### T3C06

What type of propagation is responsible for allowing over-the-horizon VHF and UHF communications to ranges of approximately 300 miles on a regular basis?

- (A): Tropospheric ducting
- B: Faraday rotation
- C: D region refraction
- D: F2 region refraction

### T3C07

What band is best suited for communicating via meteor scatter?

- (A): 6 meters
- B: 33 centimeters
- C: 70 centimeters
- D: 2 meters

### T3C08

What causes tropospheric ducting?

- A: Updrafts from hurricanes and tornadoes
- B: Discharges of lightning during electrical storms
- (C): Temperature inversions in the atmosphere
- D: Sunspots and solar flares

### T3C09

What is generally the best time for long-distance 10 meter band propagation via the F region?

- A: From shortly after sunset to dawn during periods of low sunspot activity
- B: From shortly after sunset to dawn during periods of high sunspot activity
- (C): From dawn to shortly after sunset during periods of high sunspot activity
- D: From dawn to shortly after sunset during periods of low sunspot activity

### T3C10

Which of the following bands may provide long-distance communications via the ionosphere’s F region during the peak of the sunspot cycle?

- A: 23 centimeters
- (B): 6 and 10 meters
- C: All these choices are correct
- D: 70 centimeters and 1.25 meters

### T3C11

Why is the radio horizon for VHF and UHF signals more distant than the visual horizon?

- A: Radio signals move somewhat faster than the speed of light
- B: Radio waves are blocked by dust particles
- (C): The atmosphere refracts radio waves slightly
- D: Radio waves are not blocked by dust particles

## Subelement T4

### T4A01

Which of the following is an appropriate power supply rating for a typical 50 watt output mobile FM transceiver?

- A: 13.8 volts at 4 amperes
- B: 24.0 volts at 4 amperes
- (C): 13.8 volts at 12 amperes
- D: 24.0 volts at 12 amperes

### T4A02

Which of the following should be considered when selecting an accessory SWR meter?

- A: All these choices are correct
- B: The distance that the meter will be located from the antenna
- C: The types of modulation being used at the station
- (D): The frequency and power level at which the measurements will be made

### T4A03

Why are short, heavy-gauge wires used for a transceiver’s DC power connection?

- A: All these choices are correct
- (B): To minimize voltage drop when transmitting
- C: To avoid RF interference
- D: To provide a good counterpoise for the antenna

### T4A04

How are the transceiver audio input and output connected in a station configured to operate using FT8?

- A: To an FT8 conversion unit, a keyboard, and a computer monitor
- B: To a computer running a terminal program and connected to a terminal node controller unit
- C: To a computer connected to the FT8converter.com website
- (D): To the audio input and output of a computer running WSJT-X software

### T4A05

Where should an RF power meter be installed?

- A: At the power supply output
- (B): In the feed line, between the transmitter and antenna
- C: In parallel with the push-to-talk line and the antenna
- D: In the power supply cable, as close as possible to the radio

### T4A06

What signals are used in a computer-radio interface for digital mode operation?

- A: Antenna and RF power
- B: NMEA GPS location and DC power
- C: Receive and transmit mode, status, and location
- (D): Receive audio, transmit audio, and transmitter keying

### T4A07

Which of the following connections is made between a computer and a transceiver to use computer software when operating digital modes?

- (A): Computer “line in” to transceiver speaker connector
- B: Computer “line in” to transceiver push-to-talk
- C: Computer “line out” to transceiver speaker connector
- D: Computer “line out” to transceiver push-to-talk

### T4A08

Which of the following conductors is preferred for bonding at RF?

- A: Steel wire
- (B): Flat copper strap
- C: Twisted-pair cable
- D: Copper braid removed from coaxial cable

### T4A09

How can you determine the length of time that equipment can be powered from a battery?

- A: Multiply the watts per hour consumed by the equipment by the battery power rating
- (B): Divide the battery ampere-hour rating by the average current draw of the equipment
- C: Divide the watt-hour rating of the battery by the peak power consumption of the equipment
- D: Multiply the square of the current rating of the battery by the input resistance of the equipment

### T4A10

What function is performed with a transceiver and a digital mode hot spot?

- A: High-speed digital communications for meteor scatter
- B: FT8 digital communications via AFSK
- (C): Communication using digital voice or data systems via the internet
- D: RTTY encoding and decoding without a computer

### T4A11

Where should the negative power return of a mobile transceiver be connected in a vehicle?

- (A): At the 12 volt battery chassis ground
- B: At the antenna mount
- C: To any metal part of the vehicle
- D: Through the transceiver’s mounting bracket

### T4A12

What is an electronic keyer?

- A: A device for voice activated switching from receive to transmit
- B: A device for switching antennas from transmit to receive
- C: An interlock to prevent unauthorized use of a radio
- (D): A device that assists in manual sending of Morse code

### T4B01

What is the effect of excessive microphone gain on SSB transmissions?

- A: Increased SWR
- (B): Distorted transmitted audio
- C: All these choices are correct
- D: Frequency instability

### T4B02

Which of the following can be used to enter a transceiver’s operating frequency?

- (A): The keypad or VFO knob
- B: The CTCSS or DTMF encoder
- C: All these choices are correct
- D: The Automatic Frequency Control

### T4B03

How is squelch adjusted so that a weak FM signal can be heard?

- (A): Set the squelch threshold so that receiver output audio is on all the time
- B: Enable squelch enhancement
- C: Turn on the anti-squelch function
- D: Turn up the audio level until it overcomes the squelch threshold

### T4B04

What is a way to enable quick access to a favorite frequency or channel on your transceiver?

- A: Enable the VOX
- B: Enable the frequency offset
- (C): Store it in a memory channel
- D: Use the scan mode to select the desired frequency

### T4B05

What does the scanning function of an FM transceiver do?

- A: Prevents interference to nearby repeaters
- B: Checks incoming signal deviation
- C: Checks for messages left on a digital bulletin board
- (D): Tunes through a range of frequencies to check for activity

### T4B06

Which of the following controls could be used if the voice pitch of a single-sideband signal returning to your CQ call seems too high or low?

- A: The AGC or limiter
- B: The bandwidth selection
- C: The tone squelch
- (D): The RIT or Clarifier

### T4B07

What does a DMR “code plug” contain?

- (A): Access information for repeaters and talkgroups
- B: The DMR software version
- C: The codec for digitizing audio
- D: Your call sign in CW for automatic identification

### T4B08

What is the advantage of having multiple receive bandwidth choices on a multimode transceiver?

- A: Increases the number of frequencies that can be stored in memory
- (B): Permits noise or interference reduction by selecting a bandwidth matching the mode
- C: Permits monitoring several modes at once by selecting a separate filter for each mode
- D: Increases the amount of offset between receive and transmit frequencies

### T4B09

How is a specific group of stations selected on a digital voice transceiver?

- A: By retrieving the frequencies from transceiver memory
- (B): By entering the group’s identification code
- C: By enabling the group’s CTCSS tone
- D: By activating automatic identification

### T4B10

Which of the following receiver filter bandwidths provides the best signal-to-noise ratio for SSB reception?

- A: 1000 Hz
- B: 5000 Hz
- C: 500 Hz
- (D): 2400 Hz

### T4B11

Which of the following must be programmed into a D-STAR digital transceiver before transmitting?

- A: The codec type being used
- B: All these choices are correct
- (C): Your call sign
- D: Your output power

### T4B12

What is the result of tuning an FM receiver above or below a signal’s frequency?

- (A): Distortion of the signal’s audio
- B: Generation of a heterodyne tone
- C: Sideband inversion
- D: Change in audio pitch

## Subelement T5

### T5A01

Electrical current is measured in which of the following units?

- (A): Amperes
- B: Volts
- C: Watts
- D: Ohms

### T5A02

Electrical power is measured in which of the following units?

- A: Watt-hours
- (B): Watts
- C: Amperes
- D: Volts

### T5A03

What is the name for the flow of electrons in an electric circuit?

- A: Resistance
- B: Capacitance
- (C): Current
- D: Voltage

### T5A04

What are the units of electrical resistance?

- A: Mhos
- (B): Ohms
- C: Siemens
- D: Coulombs

### T5A05

What is the electrical term for the force that causes electron flow?

- (A): Voltage
- B: Inductance
- C: Capacitance
- D: Ampere-hours

### T5A06

What is the unit of frequency?

- A: Farad
- (B): Hertz
- C: Tesla
- D: Henry

### T5A07

Why are metals generally good conductors of electricity?

- A: All these choices are correct
- B: They have many free protons
- (C): They have many free electrons
- D: They have relatively high density

### T5A08

Which of the following is a good electrical insulator?

- (A): Glass
- B: Aluminum
- C: Mercury
- D: Copper

### T5A09

Which of the following describes alternating current?

- (A): Current that alternates between positive and negative directions
- B: Current that alternates between a positive direction and zero
- C: Current that alternates between a negative direction and zero
- D: All these answers are correct

### T5A10

Which term describes the rate at which electrical energy is used?

- A: Current
- B: Voltage
- C: Resistance
- (D): Power

### T5A11

What type of current flow is opposed by resistance?

- A: Direct current
- (B): All these choices are correct
- C: Alternating current
- D: RF current

### T5A12

What describes the number of times per second that an alternating current makes a complete cycle?

- A: Wavelength
- B: Speed
- (C): Frequency
- D: Pulse rate

### T5B01

How many milliamperes is 1.5 amperes?

- (A): 1500 milliamperes
- B: 150 milliamperes
- C: 15,000 milliamperes
- D: 15 milliamperes

### T5B02

Which is equal to 1,500,000 hertz?

- A: 15 GHz
- (B): 1500 kHz
- C: 150 kHz
- D: 1500 MHz

### T5B03

Which is equal to one kilovolt?

- A: One one-thousandth of a volt
- (B): One thousand volts
- C: One million volts
- D: One hundred volts

### T5B04

Which is equal to one microvolt?

- (A): One one-millionth of a volt
- B: One thousand kilovolts
- C: One one-thousandth of a volt
- D: One million volts

### T5B05

Which is equal to 500 milliwatts?

- A: 50 watts
- B: 0.02 watts
- C: 5 watts
- (D): 0.5 watts

### T5B06

Which is equal to 3000 milliamperes?

- A: 0.3 amperes
- B: 3,000,000 amperes
- (C): 3 amperes
- D: 0.003 amperes

### T5B07

Which is equal to 3.525 MHz?

- (A): 3525 kHz
- B: 35.25 kHz
- C: 3,525,000 kHz
- D: 0.003525 kHz

### T5B08

Which is equal to 1,000,000 picofarads?

- A: 0.001 microfarads
- (B): 1 microfarad
- C: 1000 microfarads
- D: 1,000,000,000 microfarads

### T5B09

Which decibel value most closely represents a power increase from 5 watts to 10 watts?

- (A): 3 dB
- B: 5 dB
- C: 2 dB
- D: 10 dB

### T5B10

Which decibel value most closely represents a power decrease from 12 watts to 3 watts?

- A: -1 dB
- (B): -6 dB
- C: -9 dB
- D: -3 dB

### T5B11

Which decibel value represents a power increase from 20 watts to 200 watts?

- A: 18 dB
- B: 28 dB
- C: 12 dB
- (D): 10 dB

### T5B12

Which is equal to 28400 kHz?

- A: 28.400 kHz
- B: 284.00 MHz
- C: 2.800 MHz
- (D): 28.400 MHz

### T5B13

Which is equal to 2425 MHz?

- A: 0.002425 GHz
- B: 24.25 GHz
- (C): 2.425 GHz
- D: 2425 GHz

### T5C01

What describes the ability to store energy in an electric field?

- A: Resistance
- B: Inductance
- C: Tolerance
- (D): Capacitance

### T5C02

What is the unit of capacitance?

- A: The volt
- B: The ohm
- C: The henry
- (D): The farad

### T5C03

What describes the ability to store energy in a magnetic field?

- A: Admittance
- B: Capacitance
- (C): Inductance
- D: Resistance

### T5C04

What is the unit of inductance?

- A: The coulomb
- B: The farad
- C: The ohm
- (D): The henry

### T5C05

What is the unit of impedance?

- A: The coulomb
- B: The volt
- (C): The ohm
- D: The ampere

### T5C06

What does the abbreviation “RF” mean?

- A: The resonant frequency of a tuned circuit
- (B): Radio frequency signals of all types
- C: The real frequency transmitted as opposed to the apparent frequency
- D: Reflective force in antenna transmission lines

### T5C07

What is the abbreviation for megahertz?

- A: MH
- B: mh
- (C): MHz
- D: Mhz

### T5C08

What is the formula used to calculate electrical power (P) in a DC circuit?

- A: P = E / I
- B: P = I + E
- (C): P = I × E
- D: P = E – I

### T5C09

How much power is delivered by a voltage of 13.8 volts DC and a current of 10 amperes?

- A: 3.8 watts
- B: 23.8 watts
- C: 0.7 watts
- (D): 138 watts

### T5C10

How much power is delivered by a voltage of 12 volts DC and a current of 2.5 amperes?

- (A): 30 watts
- B: 4.8 watts
- C: 14.5 watts
- D: 0.208 watts

### T5C11

How much current is required to deliver 120 watts at a voltage of 12 volts DC?

- (A): 10 amperes
- B: 132 amperes
- C: 0.1 amperes
- D: 12 amperes

### T5C12

What is impedance?

- (A): The opposition to AC current flow
- B: The Q or Quality Factor of a component
- C: The inverse of resistance
- D: The power handling capability of a component

### T5C13

What is the abbreviation for kilohertz?

- (A): kHz
- B: KHZ
- C: khz
- D: khZ

### T5D01

What formula is used to calculate current in a circuit?

- A: I = E + R
- B: I = E - R
- (C): I = E / R
- D: I = E × R

### T5D02

What formula is used to calculate voltage in a circuit?

- A: E = I / R
- (B): E = I x R
- C: E = I - R
- D: E = I + R

### T5D03

What formula is used to calculate resistance in a circuit?

- A: R = E + I
- B: R = E - I
- (C): R = E / I
- D: R = E x I

### T5D04

What is the resistance of a circuit in which a current of 3 amperes flows when connected to 90 volts?

- A: 270 ohms
- B: 93 ohms
- C: 3 ohms
- (D): 30 ohms

### T5D05

What is the resistance of a circuit for which the applied voltage is 12 volts and the current flow is 1.5 amperes?

- (A): 8 ohms
- B: 18 ohms
- C: 13.5 ohms
- D: 0.125 ohms

### T5D06

What is the resistance of a circuit that draws 4 amperes from a 12-volt source?

- A: 8 ohms
- B: 48 ohms
- (C): 3 ohms
- D: 16 ohms

### T5D07

What is the current in a circuit with an applied voltage of 120 volts and a resistance of 80 ohms?

- A: 9600 amperes
- B: 200 amperes
- (C): 1.5 amperes
- D: 0.667 amperes

### T5D08

What is the current through a 100-ohm resistor connected across 200 volts?

- A: 100 amperes
- (B): 2 amperes
- C: 20,000 amperes
- D: 0.5 amperes

### T5D09

What is the current through a 24-ohm resistor connected across 240 volts?

- (A): 10 amperes
- B: 0.1 amperes
- C: 216 amperes
- D: 24,000 amperes

### T5D10

What is the voltage across a 2-ohm resistor if a current of 0.5 amperes flows through it?

- A: 0.25 volts
- B: 2.5 volts
- (C): 1 volt
- D: 1.5 volts

### T5D11

What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 1 ampere flows through it?

- A: 1 volt
- B: 11 volts
- C: 9 volts
- (D): 10 volts

### T5D12

What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 2 amperes flows through it?

- A: 0.2 volts
- (B): 20 volts
- C: 12 volts
- D: 8 volts

### T5D13

In which type of circuit is DC current the same through all components?

- (A): Series
- B: Parallel
- C: Branch
- D: Resonant

### T5D14

In which type of circuit is voltage the same across all components?

- (A): Parallel
- B: Resonant
- C: Series
- D: Branch

## Subelement T6

### T6A01

What electrical component opposes the flow of current in a DC circuit?

- A: Inductor
- (B): Resistor
- C: Transformer
- D: Inverter

### T6A02

What type of component is often used as an adjustable volume control?

- A: Power resistor
- B: Fixed resistor
- C: Transformer
- (D): Potentiometer

### T6A03

What electrical parameter is controlled by a potentiometer?

- (A): Resistance
- B: Capacitance
- C: Field strength
- D: Inductance

### T6A04

What electrical component stores energy in an electric field?

- A: Diode
- B: Inductor
- (C): Capacitor
- D: Varistor

### T6A05

What type of electrical component consists of conductive surfaces separated by an insulator?

- A: Potentiometer
- B: Oscillator
- (C): Capacitor
- D: Resistor

### T6A06

What type of electrical component stores energy in a magnetic field?

- A: Varistor
- B: Diode
- C: Capacitor
- (D): Inductor

### T6A07

What electrical component is typically constructed as a coil of wire?

- A: Diode
- (B): Inductor
- C: Switch
- D: Capacitor

### T6A08

What is the function of an SPDT switch?

- A: Two circuits are each switched between one of two other circuits
- B: Two circuits are opened or closed
- (C): A single circuit is switched between one of two other circuits
- D: A single circuit is opened or closed

### T6A09

What electrical component is used to protect other circuit components from current overloads?

- A: All these choices are correct
- B: Varactor
- C: Thyratron
- (D): Fuse

### T6A10

Which of the following battery chemistries is rechargeable?

- A: Lead-acid
- (B): All these choices are correct
- C: Nickel-metal hydride
- D: Lithium-ion

### T6A11

Which of the following battery chemistries is not rechargeable?

- A: Lead-acid
- B: Lithium-ion
- (C): Carbon-zinc
- D: Nickel-cadmium

### T6A12

What type of switch is represented by component 3 in figure T-2?

- A: Double-pole double-throw
- B: Double-pole single-throw
- C: Single-pole double-throw
- (D): Single-pole single-throw

### T6B01

Which is true about forward voltage drop in a diode?

- (A): It is lower in some diode types than in others
- B: It indicates that the diode is defective
- C: It is proportional to peak inverse voltage
- D: It has no impact on the voltage delivered to the load

### T6B02

What electronic component allows current to flow in only one direction?

- A: Driven element
- (B): Diode
- C: Fuse
- D: Resistor

### T6B03

Which of these components can be used as an electronic switch?

- A: Varistor
- B: Thermistor
- (C): Transistor
- D: Potentiometer

### T6B04

Which of the following components can consist of three regions of semiconductor material?

- A: Alternator
- B: Pentagrid converter
- C: Triode
- (D): Transistor

### T6B05

What type of transistor has a gate, drain, and source?

- A: Tesla-effect
- B: Varistor
- C: Bipolar junction
- (D): Field-effect

### T6B06

How is the cathode lead of a semiconductor diode often marked on the package?

- A: With the word "cathode"
- B: With the letter C
- (C): With a stripe
- D: With the letter K

### T6B07

What causes a light-emitting diode (LED) to emit light?

- A: Capacitively-coupled RF signal
- B: Inductively-coupled RF signal
- (C): Forward current
- D: Reverse current

### T6B08

What does the abbreviation FET stand for?

- A: Frequency Emission Transmitter
- B: Fast Electron Transistor
- C: Free Electron Transmitter
- (D): Field Effect Transistor

### T6B09

What are the names for the electrodes of a diode?

- A: Plus and minus
- (B): Anode and cathode
- C: Source and drain
- D: Gate and base

### T6B10

Which of the following can provide power gain?

- A: Transformer
- B: Reactor
- C: Resistor
- (D): Transistor

### T6B11

What is the term that describes a device's ability to amplify a signal?

- A: On resistance
- B: Forward resistance
- C: Forward voltage drop
- (D): Gain

### T6B12

What are the names of the electrodes of a bipolar junction transistor?

- A: Input, output, supply
- B: Pole one, pole two, output
- (C): Emitter, base, collector
- D: Signal, bias, power

### T6C01

What is the name of an electrical wiring diagram that uses standard component symbols?

- A: Connector pinout
- (B): Schematic
- C: Flow chart
- D: Bill of materials

### T6C02

What is component 1 in figure T-1?

- A: Battery
- B: Connector
- C: Transistor
- (D): Resistor

### T6C03

What is component 2 in figure T-1?

- A: Resistor
- B: Connector
- C: Indicator lamp
- (D): Transistor

### T6C04

What is component 3 in figure T-1?

- (A): Lamp
- B: Ground symbol
- C: Transistor
- D: Resistor

### T6C05

What is component 4 in figure T-1?

- A: Resistor
- B: Transistor
- (C): Battery
- D: Ground symbol

### T6C06

What is component 6 in figure T-2?

- A: Transistor
- B: Resistor
- C: Regulator IC
- (D): Capacitor

### T6C07

What is component 8 in figure T-2?

- A: Resistor
- B: Regulator IC
- (C): Light emitting diode
- D: Inductor

### T6C08

What is component 9 in figure T-2?

- A: Variable capacitor
- (B): Variable resistor
- C: Variable inductor
- D: Variable transformer

### T6C09

What is component 4 in figure T-2?

- A: Potentiometer
- B: Variable inductor
- C: Double-pole switch
- (D): Transformer

### T6C10

What is component 3 in figure T-3?

- A: Meter
- B: Connector
- (C): Variable inductor
- D: Variable capacitor

### T6C11

What is component 4 in figure T-3?

- (A): Antenna
- B: Dummy load
- C: Transmitter
- D: Ground

### T6C12

Which of the following is accurately represented in electrical schematics?

- A: Physical appearance of components
- (B): Component connections
- C: Wire lengths
- D: All these choices are correct

### T6D01

Which of the following devices or circuits changes an alternating current into a varying direct current signal?

- A: Reflector
- B: Transformer
- (C): Rectifier
- D: Amplifier

### T6D02

What is a relay?

- A: A pass transistor
- B: An inverting amplifier
- C: A current controlled amplifier
- (D): An electrically-controlled switch

### T6D03

Which of the following is a reason to use shielded wire?

- A: To increase the current carrying capability of the wire
- B: To decrease the resistance of DC power connections
- C: To couple the wire to other signals
- (D): To prevent coupling of unwanted signals to or from the wire

### T6D04

Which of the following displays an electrical quantity as a numeric value?

- A: Transistor
- (B): Meter
- C: Potentiometer
- D: Relay

### T6D05

What type of circuit controls the amount of voltage from a power supply?

- A: Filter
- B: Phase inverter
- (C): Regulator
- D: Oscillator

### T6D06

What component changes 120 V AC power to a lower AC voltage for other uses?

- (A): Transformer
- B: Transistor
- C: Variable capacitor
- D: Diode

### T6D07

Which of the following is commonly used as a visual indicator?

- (A): LED
- B: FET
- C: Bipolar transistor
- D: Zener diode

### T6D08

Which of the following is combined with an inductor to make a resonant circuit?

- A: Resistor
- B: Potentiometer
- (C): Capacitor
- D: Zener diode

### T6D09

What is the name of a device that combines several semiconductors and other components into one package?

- A: Transducer
- (B): Integrated circuit
- C: Multi-pole relay
- D: Transformer

### T6D10

What is the function of component 2 in figure T-1?

- (A): Control the flow of current
- B: Convert electrical energy into radio waves
- C: Give off light when current flows through it
- D: Supply electrical energy

### T6D11

Which of the following is a resonant or tuned circuit?

- A: A circuit designed to provide high-fidelity audio
- B: A linear voltage regulator
- (C): An inductor and a capacitor in series or parallel
- D: A resistor circuit used for reducing standing wave ratio

## Subelement T7

### T7A01

Which term describes the ability of a receiver to detect the presence of a signal?

- A: Total Harmonic Distortion
- B: Linearity
- C: Selectivity
- (D): Sensitivity

### T7A02

What is a transceiver?

- A: A device for converting receiver and transmitter frequencies to another band
- (B): A device that combines a receiver and transmitter
- C: A device for automatically sending and decoding Morse code
- D: A device for matching feed line impedance to 50 ohms

### T7A03

Which of the following is used to convert a signal from one frequency to another?

- (A): Mixer
- B: Inverter
- C: Amplifier
- D: Phase splitter

### T7A04

Which term describes the ability of a receiver to discriminate between multiple signals?

- (A): Selectivity
- B: Discrimination ratio
- C: Harmonic distortion
- D: Sensitivity

### T7A05

What is the name of a circuit that generates a signal at a specific frequency?

- (A): Oscillator
- B: Reactance modulator
- C: Low-pass filter
- D: Phase modulator

### T7A06

What device converts the RF input and output of a transceiver to another band?

- A: High-pass filter
- B: Low-pass filter
- (C): Transverter
- D: Phase converter

### T7A07

What is the function of a transceiver’s PTT input?

- (A): Switches transceiver from receive to transmit when grounded
- B: Provides a transmit tuning tone when grounded
- C: Input for a key used to send CW
- D: Input for a preamplifier tuning tone

### T7A08

Which of the following describes combining speech with an RF carrier signal?

- A: Impedance matching
- B: Oscillation
- C: Low-pass filtering
- (D): Modulation

### T7A09

What is the function of the SSB/CW-FM switch on a VHF power amplifier?

- A: Reduce the received signal noise
- (B): Set the amplifier for proper operation in the selected mode
- C: Change the frequency range of the amplifier to operate in the proper segment of the band
- D: Change the mode of the transmitted signal

### T7A10

What device increases the transmitted output power from a transceiver?

- A: A voltage divider
- (B): An RF power amplifier
- C: All these choices are correct
- D: An impedance network

### T7A11

Where is an RF preamplifier installed?

- A: At the output of the transmitter power amplifier
- B: At the output of the receiver audio amplifier
- (C): Between the antenna and receiver
- D: Between the transmitter and the antenna tuner

### T7B01

What can you do if you are told your FM handheld or mobile transceiver is over-deviating?

- A: Talk louder into the microphone
- B: Let the transceiver cool off
- C: Change to a higher power level
- (D): Talk farther away from the microphone

### T7B02

What would cause a broadcast AM or FM radio to receive an amateur radio transmission unintentionally?

- (A): The receiver is unable to reject strong signals outside the AM or FM band
- B: The deviation of an FM transmitter is set too low
- C: The microphone gain of the transmitter is turned up too high
- D: The audio amplifier of the transmitter is overloaded

### T7B03

Which of the following can cause radio frequency interference?

- A: Spurious emissions
- B: Harmonics
- (C): All these choices are correct
- D: Fundamental overload

### T7B04

Which of the following could you use to cure distorted audio caused by RF current on the shield of a microphone cable?

- (A): Ferrite choke
- B: Band-pass filter
- C: Low-pass filter
- D: Preamplifier

### T7B05

How can fundamental overload of a non-amateur radio or TV receiver by an amateur signal be reduced or eliminated?

- (A): Block the amateur signal with a filter at the antenna input of the affected receiver
- B: Switch the transmitter from FM to SSB
- C: Switch the transmitter to a narrow-band mode
- D: Block the interfering signal with a filter on the amateur transmitter

### T7B06

Which of the following actions should you take if a neighbor tells you that your station’s transmissions are interfering with their radio or TV reception?

- (A): Make sure that your station is functioning properly and that it does not cause interference to your own radio or television when it is tuned to the same channel
- B: Install a harmonic doubler on the output of your transmitter and tune it until the interference is eliminated
- C: All these choices are correct
- D: Immediately turn off your transmitter and contact the nearest FCC office for assistance

### T7B07

Which of the following can reduce overload of a VHF transceiver by a nearby commercial FM station?

- A: Installing an RF preamplifier
- B: Using double-shielded coaxial cable
- C: Installing bypass capacitors on the microphone cable
- (D): Installing a band-reject filter

### T7B08

What should you do if something in a neighbor’s home is causing harmful interference to your amateur station?

- A: Politely inform your neighbor that FCC rules prohibit the use of devices that cause interference
- (B): All these choices are correct
- C: Make sure your station meets the standards of good amateur practice
- D: Work with your neighbor to identify the offending device

### T7B09

What should be the first step to resolve non-fiber optic cable TV interference caused by your amateur radio transmission?

- A: Add a high-pass filter to the TV antenna input
- B: Add a low-pass filter to the TV antenna input
- (C): Be sure all TV feed line coaxial connectors are installed properly
- D: Add a preamplifier to the TV antenna input

### T7B10

What might be a problem if you receive a report that your audio signal through an FM repeater is distorted or unintelligible?

- A: Your transmitter is slightly off frequency
- B: You are in a bad location
- (C): All these choices are correct
- D: Your batteries are running low

### T7B11

What is a symptom of RF feedback in a transmitter or transceiver?

- A: The transmitter will not stay on the desired frequency
- B: Frequent blowing of power supply fuses
- (C): Reports of garbled, distorted, or unintelligible voice transmissions
- D: Excessive SWR at the antenna connection

### T7C01

What is the primary purpose of a dummy load?

- A: To improve the signal-to-noise ratio of a receiver
- B: To prevent over-modulation of a transmitter
- (C): To prevent transmitting signals over the air when making tests
- D: To improve the efficiency of an antenna

### T7C02

Which of the following is used to determine if an antenna is resonant at the desired operating frequency?

- A: A Q meter
- (B): An antenna analyzer
- C: A VTVM
- D: A frequency counter

### T7C03

What does a dummy load consist of?

- A: A high-gain amplifier and a TR switch
- (B): A non-inductive resistor mounted on a heat sink
- C: A 50-ohm reactance used to terminate a transmission line
- D: A low-voltage power supply and a DC relay

### T7C04

What reading on an SWR meter indicates a perfect impedance match between the antenna and the feed line?

- A: 50:50
- B: Full Scale
- C: Zero
- (D): 1:1

### T7C05

Why do most solid-state transmitters reduce output power as SWR increases beyond a certain level?

- A: Because power supplies cannot supply enough current at high SWR
- B: To comply with FCC rules on spectral purity
- C: To lower the SWR on the transmission line
- (D): To protect the output amplifier transistors

### T7C06

What does an SWR reading of 4:1 indicate?

- A: Good impedance match
- (B): Impedance mismatch
- C: Loss of -4 dB
- D: Gain of +4 dB

### T7C07

What happens to power lost in a feed line?

- A: It increases the SWR
- (B): It is converted into heat
- C: It distorts the signal
- D: It is radiated as harmonics

### T7C08

Which instrument can be used to determine SWR?

- A: Ohmmeter
- B: Voltmeter
- (C): Directional wattmeter
- D: Iambic pentameter

### T7C09

Which of the following causes failure of coaxial cables?

- A: Solder flux contamination
- B: Rapid fluctuation in transmitter output power
- (C): Moisture contamination
- D: Operation at 100% duty cycle for an extended period

### T7C10

Why should the outer jacket of coaxial cable be resistant to ultraviolet light?

- (A): Ultraviolet light can damage the jacket and allow water to enter the cable
- B: Ultraviolet resistant jackets prevent harmonic radiation
- C: Ultraviolet and RF signals can mix, causing interference
- D: Ultraviolet light can increase losses in the cable’s jacket

### T7C11

What is a disadvantage of air core coaxial cable when compared to foam or solid dielectric types?

- (A): It requires special techniques to prevent moisture in the cable
- B: It has more loss per foot
- C: It cannot be used for VHF or UHF antennas
- D: It cannot be used at below freezing temperatures

### T7D01

Which instrument would you use to measure electric potential?

- (A): A voltmeter
- B: A wavemeter
- C: An ohmmeter
- D: An ammeter

### T7D02

How is a voltmeter connected to a component to measure applied voltage?

- A: In phase
- (B): In parallel
- C: In series
- D: In quadrature

### T7D03

When configured to measure current, how is a multimeter connected to a component?

- A: In quadrature
- B: In phase
- (C): In series
- D: In parallel

### T7D04

Which instrument is used to measure electric current?

- A: A voltmeter
- B: An electrometer
- (C): An ammeter
- D: An ohmmeter

### T7D05

Which of the following can damage a multimeter?

- A: Attempting to measure resistance using the voltage setting
- B: Failing to connect one of the probes to ground
- C: Not allowing it to warm up properly
- (D): Attempting to measure voltage when using the resistance setting

### T7D06

Which of the following measurements are made using a multimeter?

- A: Signal strength and noise
- (B): Voltage and resistance
- C: Impedance and reactance
- D: All these choices are correct

### T7D07

Which of the following types of solder should not be used for radio and electronic applications?

- A: Rosin-core solder
- B: Tin-copper solder
- (C): Acid-core solder
- D: Lead-tin solder

### T7D08

What is the characteristic appearance of a cold tin-lead solder joint?

- A: Excessive solder
- (B): A rough or lumpy surface
- C: A bright or shiny surface
- D: Dark black spots

### T7D09

What reading indicates that an ohmmeter is connected across a large, discharged capacitor?

- A: Alternating between open and short circuit
- B: Decreasing resistance with time
- C: Steady full-scale reading
- (D): Increasing resistance with time

### T7D10

Which of the following precautions should be taken when measuring in-circuit resistance with an ohmmeter?

- (A): Ensure that the circuit is not powered
- B: Ensure that the applied voltages are correct
- C: Ensure that the circuit is operating at the correct frequency
- D: Ensure that the circuit is grounded

## Subelement T8

### T8A01

Which of the following is a form of amplitude modulation?

- A: Phase shift keying (PSK)
- B: Packet radio
- (C): Single sideband
- D: Spread spectrum

### T8A02

What type of modulation is commonly used for VHF packet radio transmissions?

- A: SSB
- (B): FM or PM
- C: PSK
- D: AM

### T8A03

Which type of voice mode is often used for long-distance (weak signal) contacts on the VHF and UHF bands?

- (A): SSB
- B: DRM
- C: FM
- D: PM

### T8A04

Which type of modulation is commonly used for VHF and UHF voice repeaters?

- A: SSB
- B: PSK
- (C): FM or PM
- D: AM

### T8A05

Which of the following types of signal has the narrowest bandwidth?

- (A): CW
- B: FM voice
- C: SSB voice
- D: Slow-scan TV

### T8A06

Which sideband is normally used for 10 meter HF, VHF, and UHF single-sideband communications?

- A: Lower sideband
- (B): Upper sideband
- C: Suppressed sideband
- D: Inverted sideband

### T8A07

What is a characteristic of single sideband (SSB) compared to FM?

- (A): SSB signals have narrower bandwidth
- B: SSB signals are less susceptible to interference
- C: All these choices are correct
- D: SSB signals are easier to tune in correctly

### T8A08

What is the approximate bandwidth of a typical single sideband (SSB) voice signal?

- A: 6 kHz
- (B): 3 kHz
- C: 15 kHz
- D: 1 kHz

### T8A09

What is the approximate bandwidth of a VHF repeater FM voice signal?

- A: Between 50 and 125 kHz
- B: Less than 500 Hz
- (C): Between 10 and 15 kHz
- D: About 150 kHz

### T8A10

What is the approximate bandwidth of AM fast-scan TV transmissions?

- A: About 1 MHz
- (B): About 6 MHz
- C: More than 10 MHz
- D: About 3 MHz

### T8A11

What is the approximate bandwidth required to transmit a CW signal?

- A: 15 kHz
- B: 1000 Hz
- C: 2.4 kHz
- (D): 150 Hz

### T8A12

Which of the following is a disadvantage of FM compared with single sideband?

- (A): Only one signal can be received at a time
- B: All these choices are correct
- C: FM signals are harder to tune
- D: Voice quality is poorer

### T8B01

What telemetry information is typically transmitted by satellite beacons?

- A: Time of day accurate to plus or minus 1/10 second
- B: All these choices are correct
- (C): Health and status of the satellite
- D: The signal strength of received signals

### T8B02

What is the impact of using excessive effective radiated power on a satellite uplink?

- A: Overloading the satellite batteries
- B: Possibility of commanding the satellite to an improper mode
- C: Possibility of rebooting the satellite control computer
- (D): Blocking access by other users

### T8B03

Which of the following are provided by satellite tracking programs?

- A: The apparent frequency of the satellite transmission, including effects of Doppler shift
- B: Maps showing the real-time position of the satellite track over Earth
- C: The time, azimuth, and elevation of the start, maximum altitude, and end of a pass
- (D): All these choices are correct

### T8B04

What mode of transmission is commonly used by amateur radio satellites?

- A: CW/data
- (B): All these choices are correct
- C: SSB
- D: FM

### T8B05

What is a satellite beacon?

- (A): A transmission from a satellite that contains status information
- B: An indicator light that shows where to point your antenna
- C: A reflective surface on the satellite
- D: The primary transmit antenna on the satellite

### T8B06

Which of the following are inputs to a satellite tracking program?

- A: All these choices are correct
- (B): The Keplerian elements
- C: The last observed time of zero Doppler shift
- D: The satellite transmitted power

### T8B07

What is Doppler shift in reference to satellite communications?

- (A): An observed change in signal frequency caused by relative motion between the satellite and Earth station
- B: A special digital communications mode for some satellites
- C: A change in the satellite orbit
- D: A mode where the satellite receives signals on one band and transmits on another

### T8B08

What is meant by the statement that a satellite is operating in U/V mode?

- A: The satellite frequencies are usually variable
- B: The satellite operates using ultraviolet frequencies
- C: The satellite uplink is in the 15 meter band and the downlink is in the 10 meter band
- (D): The satellite uplink is in the 70 centimeter band and the downlink is in the 2 meter band

### T8B09

What causes spin fading of satellite signals?

- (A): Rotation of the satellite and its antennas
- B: Doppler shift of the received signal
- C: Interfering signals within the satellite uplink band
- D: Circular polarized noise interference radiated from the sun

### T8B10

What is a LEO satellite?

- (A): A satellite in low earth orbit
- B: A sun synchronous satellite
- C: A satellite in low energy operation mode
- D: A highly elliptical orbit satellite

### T8B11

Who may receive telemetry from a space station?

- A: A licensed radio amateur who has registered for an access code from AMSAT
- (B): Anyone
- C: A licensed radio amateur who has been certified by the protocol developer
- D: A licensed radio amateur with a transmitter equipped for interrogating the satellite

### T8B12

Which of the following is a way to determine whether your satellite uplink power is neither too low nor too high?

- (A): Your signal strength on the downlink should be about the same as the beacon
- B: All these choices are correct
- C: Check your signal strength report in the telemetry data
- D: Listen for distortion on your downlink signal

### T8C01

Which of the following methods is used to locate sources of noise interference or jamming?

- A: Echolocation
- (B): Radio direction finding
- C: Phase locking
- D: Doppler radar

### T8C02

Which of these items would be useful for a hidden transmitter hunt?

- A: A calibrated noise bridge
- B: All these choices are correct
- C: Calibrated SWR meter
- (D): A directional antenna

### T8C03

What operating activity involves contacting as many stations as possible during a specified period?

- (A): Contesting
- B: Simulated emergency exercises
- C: Public service events
- D: Net operations

### T8C04

Which of the following is good procedure when contacting another station in a contest?

- A: Sign only the last two letters of your call if there are many other stations calling
- (B): Send only the minimum information needed for proper identification and the contest exchange
- C: Contact the station twice to be sure that you are in his log
- D: All these choices are correct

### T8C05

What is a grid locator?

- A: A letter-number designator assigned to an azimuth and elevation
- (B): A letter-number designator assigned to a geographic location
- C: An instrument for neutralizing a final amplifier
- D: An instrument for radio direction finding

### T8C06

How is over the air access to IRLP nodes accomplished?

- A: By using CTCSS tone codes
- B: By entering the proper internet password
- (C): By using DTMF signals
- D: By obtaining a password that is sent via voice to the node

### T8C07

What is Voice Over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?

- A: A technique employed to “spot” DX stations via the internet
- (B): A method of delivering voice communications over the internet using digital techniques
- C: A set of rules specifying how to identify your station when linked over the internet to another station
- D: A technique for measuring the modulation quality of a transmitter using remote sites monitored via the internet

### T8C08

What is the Internet Radio Linking Project (IRLP)?

- (A): A technique to connect amateur radio systems, such as repeaters, via the internet using Voice Over Internet Protocol (VoIP)
- B: A technique for measuring signal strength of an amateur transmitter via the internet
- C: A system for informing amateurs in real time of the frequency of active DX stations
- D: A system for providing access to websites via amateur radio

### T8C09

Which of the following protocols enables an amateur station to transmit through a repeater without using a radio to initiate the transmission?

- A: DMR
- B: D-STAR
- (C): EchoLink
- D: IRLP

### T8C10

What is required before using the EchoLink system?

- A: Complete the required EchoLink training
- B: All these choices are correct
- C: Purchase a license to use the EchoLink software
- (D): Register your call sign and provide proof of license

### T8C11

What is an amateur radio station that connects other amateur stations to the internet?

- A: A repeater
- (B): A gateway
- C: A digipeater
- D: A beacon

### T8D01

Which of the following is a digital communications mode?

- A: FT8
- B: IEEE 802.11
- C: Packet radio
- (D): All these choices are correct

### T8D02

What is a “talkgroup” on a DMR repeater?

- A: A protocol that increases the signal-to-noise ratio when multiple repeaters are linked together
- B: A group of operators sharing common interests
- (C): A way for groups of users to share a channel at different times without hearing other users on the channel
- D: A net that meets at a specified time

### T8D03

What kind of data can be transmitted by APRS?

- (A): All these choices are correct
- B: Weather data
- C: GPS position data
- D: Text messages

### T8D04

What type of transmission is indicated by the term "NTSC?"

- (A): An analog fast-scan color TV signal
- B: A special mode for satellite uplink
- C: A Normal Transmission mode in Static Circuit
- D: A frame compression scheme for TV signals

### T8D05

Which of the following is an application of APRS?

- (A): Providing real-time tactical digital communications in conjunction with a map showing the locations of stations
- B: Providing information on the number of stations signed into a repeater
- C: Providing voice over internet connection between repeaters
- D: Showing automatically the number of packets transmitted via PACTOR during a specific time interval

### T8D06

What does the abbreviation "PSK" mean?

- A: Phased Slide Keying
- (B): Phase Shift Keying
- C: Packet Short Keying
- D: Pulse Shift Keying

### T8D07

Which of the following describes DMR?

- A: An automatic computer logging technique for hands-off logging when communicating while operating a vehicle
- B: A digital technique for transmitting on two repeater inputs simultaneously for automatic error correction
- C: An automatic position tracking mode for FM mobiles communicating through repeaters
- (D): A technique for time-multiplexing two digital voice signals on a single 12.5 kHz repeater channel

### T8D08

Which of the following is included in packet radio transmissions?

- A: A header that contains the call sign of the station to which the information is being sent
- (B): All these choices are correct
- C: Automatic repeat request in case of error
- D: A check sum that permits error detection

### T8D09

What is CW?

- A: A type of electromagnetic propagation
- B: A technique for coil winding
- (C): Another name for a Morse code transmission
- D: A digital mode used primarily on 2 meter FM

### T8D10

Which of the following operating activities is supported by digital mode software in the WSJT-X software suite?

- (A): All these choices are correct
- B: Weak signal propagation beacons
- C: Earth-Moon-Earth
- D: Meteor scatter

### T8D11

What is an ARQ transmission system?

- A: A system used to encrypt command signals to an amateur radio satellite
- (B): An error correction method in which the receiving station detects errors and sends a request for retransmission
- C: A method of compressing data using autonomous reiterative Q codes prior to final encoding
- D: A special transmission format limited to video signals

### T8D12

Which of the following best describes an amateur radio mesh network?

- A: An internet linking protocol used to network repeaters
- B: A satellite communications network using modified commercial satellite TV hardware
- C: A wide-bandwidth digital voice mode employing DMR protocols
- (D): An amateur-radio based data network using commercial Wi-Fi equipment with modified firmware

### T8D13

What is FT8?

- A: An eight channel multiplex mode for FM repeaters
- (B): A digital mode capable of low signal-to-noise operation
- C: A wideband FM voice mode
- D: A digital slow-scan TV mode with forward error correction and automatic color compensation

## Subelement T9

### T9A01

What is a beam antenna?

- A: An antenna that reverses the phase of received signals
- (B): An antenna that concentrates signals in one direction
- C: An antenna built from aluminum I-beams
- D: An omnidirectional antenna invented by Clarence Beam

### T9A02

Which of the following describes a type of antenna loading?

- A: Strengthening the radiating elements of a beam antenna to better resist wind damage
- B: Installing a spring in the base of a mobile vertical antenna to make it more flexible
- C: Inserting a resistor in the radiating portion of the antenna to make it resonant
- (D): Electrically lengthening by inserting inductors in radiating elements

### T9A03

Which of the following describes a simple dipole oriented parallel to Earth's surface?

- A: A travelling-wave antenna
- (B): A horizontally polarized antenna
- C: A vertically polarized antenna
- D: A ground-wave antenna

### T9A04

What is a disadvantage of the short, flexible antenna supplied with most handheld radio transceivers, compared to a full-sized quarter-wave antenna?

- A: All these choices are correct
- B: It is mechanically fragile
- C: It transmits only circularly polarized signals
- (D): It has low efficiency

### T9A05

Which of the following increases the resonant frequency of a dipole antenna?

- A: Lengthening it
- (B): Shortening it
- C: Adding capacitive loading to the ends of the radiating wires
- D: Inserting coils in series with radiating wires

### T9A06

Which of the following types of antenna offers the greatest gain?

- A: 5/8 wave vertical
- (B): Yagi
- C: J pole
- D: Isotropic

### T9A07

What is a disadvantage of using a handheld VHF transceiver with a flexible antenna inside a vehicle?

- A: The SWR might decrease, decreasing the signal strength
- (B): Signal strength is reduced due to the shielding effect of the vehicle
- C: All these choices are correct
- D: The bandwidth of the antenna will decrease, increasing SWR

### T9A08

What is the approximate length, in inches, of a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna for 146 MHz?

- A: 12
- B: 112
- (C): 19
- D: 50

### T9A09

What is the approximate length, in inches, of a half-wavelength 6 meter dipole antenna?

- A: 236
- B: 6
- C: 50
- (D): 112

### T9A10

In which direction does a half-wave dipole antenna radiate the strongest signal?

- A: In the direction of the feed line
- (B): Broadside to the antenna
- C: Off the ends of the antenna
- D: Equally in all directions

### T9A11

What is antenna gain?

- A: The increase in impedance on receive or transmit compared to a reference antenna
- (B): The increase in signal strength in a specified direction compared to a reference antenna
- C: The additional power that is required in the antenna when transmitting on a higher frequency
- D: The additional power that is added to the transmitter power

### T9A12

What is an advantage of a 5/8 wavelength whip antenna for VHF or UHF mobile service?

- A: It has 10 times the power gain of a 1/4 wavelength whip
- B: It radiates at a very high angle
- C: It eliminates distortion caused by reflected signals
- (D): It has more gain than a 1/4-wavelength antenna

### T9B01

What is a benefit of low SWR?

- A: All these choices are correct
- (B): Reduced signal loss
- C: Reduced television interference
- D: Less antenna wear

### T9B02

What is the most common impedance of coaxial cables used in amateur radio?

- A: 12 ohms
- (B): 50 ohms
- C: 600 ohms
- D: 8 ohms

### T9B03

Why is coaxial cable the most common feed line for amateur radio antenna systems?

- A: It has less loss than any other type of feed line
- B: It can handle more power than any other type of feed line
- C: It is less expensive than any other type of feed line
- (D): It is easy to use and requires few special installation considerations

### T9B04

What is the major function of an antenna tuner (antenna coupler)?

- A: It helps a receiver automatically tune in weak stations
- (B): It matches the antenna system impedance to the transceiver's output impedance
- C: It automatically selects the proper antenna for the frequency band being used
- D: It allows an antenna to be used on both transmit and receive

### T9B05

What happens as the frequency of a signal in coaxial cable is increased?

- A: The characteristic impedance increases
- (B): The loss increases
- C: The characteristic impedance decreases
- D: The loss decreases

### T9B06

Which of the following RF connector types is most suitable for frequencies above 400 MHz?

- A: RS-213
- B: DB-25
- C: UHF (PL-259/SO-239)
- (D): Type N

### T9B07

Which of the following is true of PL-259 type coax connectors?

- A: They are watertight
- B: They are preferred for microwave operation
- C: They are a bayonet-type connector
- (D): They are commonly used at HF and VHF frequencies

### T9B08

Which of the following is a source of loss in coaxial feed line?

- (A): All these choices are correct
- B: High SWR
- C: Multiple connectors in the line
- D: Water intrusion into coaxial connectors

### T9B09

What can cause erratic changes in SWR?

- A: Over-modulation
- B: Local thunderstorm
- C: Overload from a strong local station
- (D): Loose connection in the antenna or feed line

### T9B10

What is the electrical difference between RG-58 and RG-213 coaxial cable?

- A: There is no significant difference between the two types
- B: RG-58 cable can handle higher power levels
- C: RG-58 cable has two shields
- (D): RG-213 cable has less loss at a given frequency

### T9B11

Which of the following types of feed line has the lowest loss at VHF and UHF?

- (A): Air-insulated hardline
- B: 50-ohm flexible coax
- C: Multi-conductor unbalanced cable
- D: 75-ohm flexible coax

### T9B12

What is standing wave ratio (SWR)?

- A: The ratio of amplifier power output to input
- B: An indication of the quality of your station’s ground connection
- C: The transmitter efficiency ratio
- (D): A measure of how well a load is matched to a transmission line

## Subelement T0

### T0A01

Which of the following is a safety hazard of a 12-volt storage battery?

- A: Touching both terminals with the hands can cause electrical shock
- B: RF emissions from a nearby transmitter can cause the electrolyte to emit poison gas
- C: All these choices are correct
- (D): Shorting the terminals can cause burns, fire, or an explosion

### T0A02

What health hazard is presented by electrical current flowing through the body?

- A: It may cause involuntary muscle contractions
- B: It may disrupt the electrical functions of cells
- C: It may cause injury by heating tissue
- (D): All these choices are correct

### T0A03

In the United States, what circuit does black wire insulation indicate in a three-wire 120 V cable?

- A: Equipment ground
- B: Neutral
- (C): Hot
- D: Black insulation is never used

### T0A04

What is the purpose of a fuse in an electrical circuit?

- (A): To remove power in case of overload
- B: To prevent power supply ripple from damaging a component
- C: To limit current to prevent shocks
- D: All these choices are correct

### T0A05

Why should a 5-ampere fuse never be replaced with a 20-ampere fuse?

- A: The power supply ripple would greatly increase
- B: The larger fuse would be likely to blow because it is rated for higher current
- (C): Excessive current could cause a fire
- D: All these choices are correct

### T0A06

What is a good way to guard against electrical shock at your station?

- A: Use three-wire cords and plugs for all AC powered equipment
- (B): All these choices are correct
- C: Install mechanical interlocks in high-voltage circuits
- D: Connect all AC powered station equipment to a common safety ground

### T0A07

Where should a lightning arrester be installed in a coaxial feed line?

- A: At the ac power service panel
- B: At the output connector of a transceiver
- (C): On a grounded panel near where feed lines enter the building
- D: At the antenna feed point

### T0A08

Where should a fuse or circuit breaker be installed in a 120V AC power circuit?

- A: In parallel with the hot conductor only
- (B): In series with the hot conductor only
- C: In parallel with the hot and neutral conductors
- D: In series with the hot and neutral conductors

### T0A09

What should be done to all external ground rods or earth connections?

- A: Tune them for resonance on the lowest frequency of operation
- B: Waterproof them with silicone caulk or electrical tape
- C: Keep them as far apart as possible
- (D): Bond them together with heavy wire or conductive strap

### T0A10

What hazard is caused by charging or discharging a battery too quickly?

- A: Half-wave rectification
- B: Excess output ripple
- (C): Overheating or out-gassing
- D: Inverse memory effect

### T0A11

What hazard exists in a power supply immediately after turning it off?

- A: Leakage flux in the power transformer
- (B): Charge stored in filter capacitors
- C: Voltage transients from kickback diodes
- D: Circulating currents in the dc filter

### T0A12

Which of the following precautions should be taken when measuring high voltages with a voltmeter?

- A: Ensure that the circuit is grounded through the voltmeter
- B: Ensure that the voltmeter is set to the correct frequency
- C: Ensure that the voltmeter has very low impedance
- (D): Ensure that the voltmeter and leads are rated for use at the voltages to be measured

### T0B01

Which of the following is good practice when installing ground wires on a tower for lightning protection?

- (A): Ensure that connections are short and direct
- B: Make sure all ground wire bends are right angles
- C: Put a drip loop in the ground connection to prevent water damage to the ground system
- D: All these choices are correct

### T0B02

What is required when climbing an antenna tower?

- A: Have sufficient training on safe tower climbing techniques
- B: Always wear an approved climbing harness
- (C): All these choices are correct
- D: Use appropriate tie-off to the tower at all times

### T0B03

Under what circumstances is it safe to climb a tower without a helper or observer?

- A: When the work being done is not more than 20 feet above the ground
- (B): Never
- C: When no mechanical work is being performed
- D: When no electrical work is being performed

### T0B04

Which of the following is an important safety precaution to observe when putting up an antenna tower?

- A: Insulate the base of the tower to avoid lightning strikes
- (B): Look for and stay clear of any overhead electrical wires
- C: All these choices are correct
- D: Wear a ground strap connected to your wrist at all times

### T0B05

What is the purpose of a safety wire through a turnbuckle used to tension guy lines?

- A: Provide an ability to measure for proper tensioning
- B: Secure the guy line if the turnbuckle breaks
- C: Provide a ground path for lightning strikes
- (D): Prevent loosening of the turnbuckle from vibration

### T0B06

What is the minimum safe distance from a power line to allow when installing an antenna?

- A: 1/2 wavelength at the operating frequency
- B: The height of the power line above ground
- C: Add the height of the antenna to the height of the power line and multiply by a factor of 1.5
- (D): Enough so that if the antenna falls, no part of it can come closer than 10 feet to the power wires

### T0B07

Which of the following is an important safety rule to remember when using a crank-up tower?

- A: This type of tower must never be painted
- B: All these choices are correct
- C: This type of tower must never be grounded
- (D): This type of tower must not be climbed unless it is retracted, or mechanical safety locking devices have been installed

### T0B08

Which is a proper grounding method for a tower?

- A: A ferrite-core RF choke connected between the tower and ground
- B: A single four-foot ground rod, driven into the ground no more than 12 inches from the base
- C: A connection between the tower base and a cold water pipe
- (D): Separate eight-foot ground rods for each tower leg, bonded to the tower and each other

### T0B09

Why should you avoid attaching an antenna to a utility pole?

- (A): The antenna could contact high-voltage power lines
- B: The 60 Hz radiations from the feed line may increase the SWR
- C: The antenna will not work properly because of induced voltages
- D: All these choices are correct

### T0B10

Which of the following is true when installing grounding conductors used for lightning protection?

- A: Wires must be carefully routed with precise right-angle bends
- B: Use only non-insulated wire
- (C): Sharp bends must be avoided
- D: Common grounds must be avoided

### T0B11

Which of the following establishes grounding requirements for an amateur radio tower or antenna?

- A: UL recommended practices
- B: FAA tower lighting regulations
- (C): Local electrical codes
- D: FCC Part 97 rules

### T0C01

What type of radiation are radio signals?

- (A): Non-ionizing radiation
- B: Ionizing radiation
- C: Alpha radiation
- D: Gamma radiation

### T0C02

At which of the following frequencies does maximum permissible exposure have the lowest value?

- A: 440 MHz
- B: 1296 MHz
- (C): 50 MHz
- D: 3.5 MHz

### T0C03

How does the allowable power density for RF safety change if duty cycle changes from 100 percent to 50 percent?

- A: There is no adjustment allowed for lower duty cycle
- B: It increases by a factor of 3
- (C): It increases by a factor of 2
- D: It decreases by 50 percent

### T0C04

What factors affect the RF exposure of people near an amateur station antenna?

- A: Frequency and power level of the RF field
- B: Radiation pattern of the antenna
- (C): All these choices are correct
- D: Distance from the antenna to a person

### T0C05

Why do exposure limits vary with frequency?

- A: Lower frequency RF fields do not penetrate the human body
- B: Lower frequency RF fields have more energy than higher frequency fields
- C: Higher frequency RF fields are transient in nature
- (D): The human body absorbs more RF energy at some frequencies than at others

### T0C06

Which of the following is an acceptable method to determine whether your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

- A: By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
- (B): All these choices are correct
- C: By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
- D: By calculation based on computer modeling

### T0C07

What hazard is created by touching an antenna during a transmission?

- A: All these choices are correct
- B: Radiation poisoning
- C: Electrocution
- (D): RF burn to skin

### T0C08

Which of the following actions can reduce exposure to RF radiation?

- (A): Relocate antennas
- B: Relocate the transmitter
- C: Increase the duty cycle
- D: All these choices are correct

### T0C09

How can you make sure your station stays in compliance with RF safety regulations?

- A: All these choices are correct
- B: By making sure your antennas have low SWR
- C: By informing the FCC of any changes made in your station
- (D): By re-evaluating the station whenever an item in the transmitter or antenna system is changed

### T0C10

Why is duty cycle one of the factors used to determine safe RF radiation exposure levels?

- (A): It affects the average exposure to radiation
- B: It affects the peak exposure to radiation
- C: It takes into account the thermal effects of the final amplifier
- D: It takes into account the antenna feed line loss

### T0C11

What is the definition of duty cycle during the averaging time for RF exposure?

- (A): The percentage of time that a transmitter is transmitting
- B: The difference between the lowest power output and the highest power output of a transmitter
- C: The difference between the PEP and average power output of a transmitter
- D: The percentage of time that a transmitter is not transmitting

### T0C12

How does RF radiation differ from ionizing radiation (radioactivity)?

- A: RF radiation can only be detected with an RF dosimeter
- (B): RF radiation does not have sufficient energy to cause chemical changes in cells and damage DNA
- C: RF radiation is limited in range to a few feet
- D: RF radiation is perfectly safe

### T0C13

Who is responsible for ensuring that no person is exposed to RF energy above the FCC exposure limits?

- A: The local zoning board
- B: The FCC
- C: Anyone who is near an antenna
- (D): The station licensee