# US Amateur Radio Test Question Pool G1-G0

## Subelement G1

### G1A01

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

- A: 160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
- B: 60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
- (C): 80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
- D: 80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters

### G1A02

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

- A: 12 meters
- B: 17 meters
- C: 160 meters
- (D): 30 meters

### G1A03

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

- A: 160 meters
- B: 12 meters
- C: 20 meters
- (D): 30 meters

### G1A04

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

- A: 12 meters
- (B): 60 meters
- C: 11 meters
- D: 30 meters

### G1A05

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

- A: 28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
- B: 21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
- (C): 7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
- D: All these choices are correct

### G1A06

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

- A: Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
- B: Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
- (C): Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
- D: Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station

### G1A07

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

- A: 28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
- B: 28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
- C: 28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
- (D): The entire band

### G1A08

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

- A: 60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
- (B): 80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
- C: All HF bands
- D: All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters

### G1A09

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

- A: 24900 kHz
- B: 18155 kHz
- C: 14250 kHz
- (D): 21300 kHz

### G1A10

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

- A: The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
- B: The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
- (C): The portion above 29.5 MHz
- D: The entire band

### G1A11

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

- (A): The upper frequency portion
- B: The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
- C: The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
- D: The lower frequency portion

### G1B01

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

- A: 50 feet
- B: 250 feet
- (C): 200 feet
- D: 100 feet

### G1B02

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

- A: The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
- (B): No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
- C: The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
- D: All these choices are correct

### G1B03

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

- (A): Observation of propagation and reception
- B: Automatic identification of repeaters
- C: All these choices are correct
- D: Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees

### G1B04

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

- A: Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
- B: Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
- (C): Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
- D: Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act

### G1B05

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

- A: Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use
- B: All these choices are correct
- C: Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
- (D): Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code

### G1B06

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

- A: At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
- B: Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
- (C): Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
- D: Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure

### G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

- A: They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
- B: They are not permitted
- (C): They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
- D: Only “Q” signals are permitted

### G1B08

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

- A: Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC
- B: Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
- C: Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country
- (D): When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications

### G1B09

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

- A: 21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
- B: On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
- (C): 28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
- D: On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt

### G1B10

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

- A: 10 watts PEP output
- B: 200 watts PEP output
- C: 20 watts PEP output
- (D): 100 watts PEP output

### G1B11

Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

- A: The ITU
- B: The IEEE
- C: The control operator
- (D): The FCC

### G1C01

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

- A: 1000 watts PEP output
- (B): 200 watts PEP output
- C: 2000 watts PEP output
- D: 1500 watts PEP output

### G1C02

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

- (A): 1500 watts PEP output
- B: 50 watts PEP output
- C: 200 watts PEP output
- D: An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole

### G1C03

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

- A: 5.6 kHz
- B: 3 kHz
- (C): 2.8 kHz
- D: 1.8 kHz

### G1C04

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

- (A): If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
- B: You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
- C: You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
- D: You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked

### G1C05

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

- A: 2000 watts PEP output
- (B): 1500 watts PEP output
- C: 1000 watts PEP output
- D: 100 watts PEP output

### G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

- A: 200 watts PEP output
- B: 1200 watts PEP output
- (C): 1500 watts PEP output
- D: 1000 watts PEP output

### G1C07

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

- (A): Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
- B: Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
- C: Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique
- D: Obtain an experimental license from the FCC

### G1C08

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

- A: 10 watts RMS
- (B): ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
- C: 1500 watts PEP
- D: ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna

### G1C09

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

- A: RMS output from the transmitter
- B: PEP input to the antenna
- C: RMS input to the antenna
- (D): PEP output from the transmitter

### G1D01

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

- A: Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
- (B): Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
- C: Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago
- D: Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC

### G1D02

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

- A: None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
- (B): Technician only
- C: General and Technician
- D: Amateur Extra, General, and Technician

### G1D03

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

- A: Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
- (B): On any General or Technician class band segment
- C: Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
- D: On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters

### G1D04

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

- (A): At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
- B: At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
- C: At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
- D: At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher

### G1D05

When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?

- (A): A US operator/primary station license
- B: Only a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US
- C: A license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC
- D: Only an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC

### G1D06

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?

- A: Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
- (B): Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
- C: A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
- D: Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency

### G1D07

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

- A: The Universal Licensing System
- B: The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
- C: The Federal Communications Commission
- (D): A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator

### G1D08

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

- A: The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
- B: The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years
- (C): The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
- D: None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner

### G1D09

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

- A: For as long as your current license is valid
- B: 30 days
- C: 180 days
- (D): 365 days

### G1D10

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

- A: 21 years
- B: There is no age limit
- C: 16 years
- (D): 18 years

### G1D11

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

- A: There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
- B: Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
- (C): The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
- D: They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license

### G1D12

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

- A: Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
- (B): Only those of the remote station’s country
- C: Only those of the FCC
- D: Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations

### G1E01

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

- A: The third party is speaking in a language other than English
- (B): The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
- C: All these choices are correct
- D: The third party is not a US citizen

### G1E02

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

- A: Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
- (B): Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license
- C: Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency
- D: Under no circumstances

### G1E03

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

- (A): The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
- B: The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
- C: No third-party traffic may be transmitted
- D: The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license

### G1E04

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

- A: When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
- (B): All these choices are correct
- C: When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
- D: When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station

### G1E05

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

- A: The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log
- B: They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief
- C: They must be for other licensed amateurs
- (D): They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief

### G1E06

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

- (A): Region 2
- B: Region 1
- C: Region 3
- D: Region 4

### G1E07

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

- A: Channels 42 through 45
- (B): No part
- C: Anywhere in the band
- D: Channels 1 through 4

### G1E08

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

- A: 100 watts
- B: 100 milliwatts
- C: 1500 watts
- (D): 10 watts

### G1E09

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

- (A): Under no circumstances
- B: When under automatic control
- C: When messages are encrypted
- D: When messages are not encrypted

### G1E10

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

- A: These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
- B: A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
- (C): A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
- D: These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC

### G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

- A: Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
- (B): Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
- C: Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
- D: On any band segment where digital operation is permitted

### G1E12

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

- A: Under no circumstances except for emergencies
- (B): Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules
- C: Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs
- D: Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC

## Subelement G2

### G2A01

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

- (A): Upper sideband
- B: Double sideband
- C: Lower sideband
- D: Suppressed sideband

### G2A02

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

- A: Upper sideband
- B: Double sideband
- (C): Lower sideband
- D: Suppressed sideband

### G2A03

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

- A: Double sideband
- B: Suppressed sideband
- C: Lower sideband
- (D): Upper sideband

### G2A04

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

- A: Suppressed sideband
- (B): Upper sideband
- C: Double sideband
- D: Lower sideband

### G2A05

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

- A: Single phase modulation
- B: Double sideband
- (C): Single sideband
- D: Frequency modulation

### G2A06

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

- (A): Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
- B: Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
- C: Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
- D: Very high-fidelity voice modulation

### G2A07

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

- A: SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
- B: SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
- (C): Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
- D: Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed

### G2A08

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

- A: Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station
- (B): Say your call sign once
- C: Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
- D: Say “Breaker Breaker”

### G2A09

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

- A: Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
- B: Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
- C: Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
- (D): It is commonly accepted amateur practice

### G2A10

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

- A: It provides more power output
- (B): It allows “hands free” operation
- C: It occupies less bandwidth
- D: The received signal is more natural sounding

### G2A11

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?

- A: Only contest stations
- (B): Any stations outside the lower 48 states
- C: Only stations in Germany
- D: Any caller is welcome to respond

### G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

- A: RF clipping level
- B: Antenna inductance or capacitance
- (C): Transmit audio or microphone gain
- D: Attenuator level

### G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

- (A): Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
- B: Nets have priority
- C: QSOs in progress have priority
- D: Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies

### G2B02

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

- (A): Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
- B: Inform your local emergency coordinator
- C: Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
- D: Immediately cease all transmissions

### G2B03

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

- A: Switch to the opposite sideband
- (B): Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner
- C: Decrease power and continue to transmit
- D: Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority

### G2B04

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

- A: 3 kHz to 6 kHz
- B: 5 Hz to 50 Hz
- (C): 150 Hz to 500 Hz
- D: 1 kHz to 3 kHz

### G2B05

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

- A: 5 Hz to 50 Hz
- B: 150 Hz to 500 Hz
- (C): 2 kHz to 3 kHz
- D: Approximately 6 kHz

### G2B06

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

- (A): Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
- B: Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response
- C: Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
- D: Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ

### G2B07

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

- A: Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear
- B: Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
- (C): Follow the voluntary band plan
- D: All these choices are correct

### G2B08

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

- A: Only digital contacts
- (B): Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
- C: Only SSTV contacts
- D: Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states

### G2B09

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

- A: Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
- B: Only a RACES net control operator
- C: A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
- (D): Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license

### G2B10

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

- A: All these choices are correct
- (B): Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
- C: Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
- D: Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session

### G2B11

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

- (A): No more than 1 hour per week
- B: No more than 2 hours per month
- C: No more than 2 hours per week
- D: No more than 1 hour per month

### G2C01

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

- A: Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
- B: An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
- C: Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
- (D): Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

### G2C02

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

- A: Change frequency
- (B): Send slower
- C: Increase your power
- D: Repeat everything twice

### G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

- A: Closing station now
- (B): Listening only for a specific station or stations
- C: Operating full break-in
- D: No US stations should call

### G2C04

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?

- A: “Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
- (B): “Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
- C: “Are you listening only for a specific station?”
- D: “Will you keep the frequency clear?”

### G2C05

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

- A: At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
- B: The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
- (C): The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
- D: At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm

### G2C06

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

- (A): Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
- B: Matching the speed of the transmitting station
- C: Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
- D: Sending without error

### G2C07

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

- A: Key clicks
- B: Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
- (C): Chirpy or unstable signal
- D: 100 percent copy

### G2C08

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

- A: BK
- B: SK
- C: KN
- (D): AR

### G2C09

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

- A: We have worked before
- B: We have already confirmed the contact
- C: Send slower
- (D): I have received and understood

### G2C10

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

- A: Stop sending
- B: Send more slowly
- C: Zero beat my signal
- (D): I am troubled by static

### G2C11

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

- A: I am quitting for the day
- B: You are sending too fast
- (C): I am ready to receive
- D: There is interference on the frequency

### G2D01

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

- (A): Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
- B: Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
- C: Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
- D: Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations

### G2D02

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

- A: To provide emergency and public safety communications
- B: To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
- (C): To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
- D: To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations

### G2D03

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

- (A): Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
- B: Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
- C: Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
- D: All these choices are correct

### G2D04

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

- A: A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
- (B): A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
- C: A map that shows accurate land masses
- D: A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

### G2D05

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

- A: Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
- B: Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
- C: Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary
- (D): Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary

### G2D06

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

- (A): 180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
- B: Toward the rising sun
- C: Along the gray line
- D: Toward the north

### G2D07

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

- A: Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
- B: Adam, Boy, Charles, David
- (C): Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
- D: America, Boston, Canada, Denmark

### G2D08

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

- A: The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
- (B): To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
- C: The FCC requires a log of all international contacts
- D: The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest

### G2D09

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

- A: All these choices are correct
- B: Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
- C: Submit a log to the contest sponsor
- (D): Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations

### G2D10

What is QRP operation?

- A: Traffic relay procedure net operation
- (B): Low-power transmit operation
- C: Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
- D: Remote piloted model control

### G2D11

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

- (A): To allow each station to operate according to conditions
- B: To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
- C: To follow standard radiogram structure
- D: To be sure the contact will count for award programs

### G2E01

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

- A: USB
- B: CW
- (C): LSB
- D: DSB

### G2E02

What is VARA?

- A: A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
- B: DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
- (C): A digital protocol used with Winlink
- D: A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF

### G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

- A: Frequent retries or timeouts
- (B): All these choices are correct
- C: Failure to establish a connection between stations
- D: Long pauses in message transmission

### G2E04

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

- (A): Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station
- B: Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency
- C: Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station
- D: Always call on the station’s frequency

### G2E05

What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK?

- A: SSB
- B: DSB
- (C): USB
- D: LSB

### G2E06

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

- A: 850 Hz
- B: 85 Hz
- C: 425 Hz
- (D): 170 Hz

### G2E07

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

- A: Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
- B: A special hardware modem
- C: A vertically polarized antenna
- (D): Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second

### G2E08

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

- A: At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
- (B): Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
- C: At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
- D: In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz

### G2E09

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

- (A): Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
- B: Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
- C: Send a NAK code
- D: Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects

### G2E10

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

- A: Send an email to the system control operator
- B: Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
- (C): Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
- D: Send QRL in Morse code

### G2E11

What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

- A: To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide
- B: To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers
- C: To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas
- (D): To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event

### G2E12

Which of the following describes Winlink?

- (A): All these choices are correct
- B: A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation
- C: An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet
- D: A form of Packet Radio

### G2E13

What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server?

- A: RJ-45
- (B): Gateway
- C: Terminal Node Controller
- D: Printer/Server

### G2E14

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

- A: The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
- (B): All these choices are correct
- C: You may have selected the wrong baud rate
- D: You may be listening on the wrong sideband

### G2E15

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

- A: Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
- (B): Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
- C: Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
- D: Anywhere in the CW portion of the band

## Subelement G3

### G3A01

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

- A: A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
- B: Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
- C: A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
- (D): Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies

### G3A02

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

- A: It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
- (B): It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
- C: None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
- D: It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications

### G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

- A: 20 to 40 hours
- (B): 8 minutes
- C: 28 days
- D: 1 to 2 hours

### G3A04

Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

- A: 30 meters and 20 meters
- B: 80 meters and 160 meters
- (C): 15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters
- D: 60 meters and 40 meters

### G3A05

What is the solar flux index?

- A: A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on Earth
- (B): A measure of solar radiation with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters
- C: A count of sunspots that is adjusted for solar emissions
- D: Another name for the American sunspot number

### G3A06

What is a geomagnetic storm?

- A: Ripples in the geomagnetic force
- B: A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
- C: A sudden drop in the solar flux index
- (D): A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field

### G3A07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

- A: Only at the maximum point
- B: Only at the minimum point
- (C): At any point
- D: At the summer solstice

### G3A08

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

- A: Degrade ground wave propagation
- B: Improve high-latitude HF propagation
- C: Improve ground wave propagation
- (D): Degrade high-latitude HF propagation

### G3A09

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

- (A): Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
- B: Improve HF long path propagation
- C: Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
- D: Reduce long delayed echoes

### G3A10

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?

- A: The position of the Moon in its orbit
- B: Cyclic variation in Earth’s radiation belts
- (C): Rotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis
- D: Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere

### G3A11

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

- A: 28 days
- (B): 15 hours to several days
- C: 4 to 8 minutes
- D: 14 days

### G3A12

What does the K-index measure?

- A: The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
- B: The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
- (C): The short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
- D: The short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field

### G3A13

What does the A-index measure?

- A: The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
- B: The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
- C: The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field
- (D): The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field

### G3A14

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

- (A): HF communication is disturbed
- B: VHF/UHF ducting is improved
- C: VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
- D: HF communication is improved

### G3B01

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

- A: Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
- (B): A slightly delayed echo might be heard
- C: Signal strength increased by 3 dB
- D: The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation

### G3B02

What factors affect the MUF?

- (A): All these choices are correct
- B: Path distance and location
- C: Time of day and season
- D: Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances

### G3B03

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

- A: Just above the critical frequency
- B: Just below the critical frequency
- C: Just above the LUF
- (D): Just below the MUF

### G3B04

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

- (A): Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
- B: Check the A-index
- C: All these choices are correct
- D: Send a series of dots and listen for echoes

### G3B05

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

- (A): They are refracted back to Earth
- B: They pass through the ionosphere
- C: They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
- D: They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere

### G3B06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

- A: They pass through the ionosphere
- B: They are refracted back to Earth
- (C): They are attenuated before reaching the destination
- D: They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

### G3B07

What does LUF stand for?

- A: The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
- B: The Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes
- (C): The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
- D: The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius

### G3B08

What does MUF stand for?

- A: The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
- B: The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
- C: The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
- (D): The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

### G3B09

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

- A: 12,000 miles
- B: 1,200 miles
- (C): 2,500 miles
- D: 180 miles

### G3B10

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

- A: 2,500 miles
- (B): 1,200 miles
- C: 180 miles
- D: 12,000 miles

### G3B11

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

- A: Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
- B: HF communications over the path are enhanced
- C: Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
- (D): Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path

### G3B12

Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

- A: World-wide propagation during daylight hours
- (B): High levels of atmospheric noise or static
- C: Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption
- D: Poor propagation at any time of day

### G3C01

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

- A: The F1 region
- (B): The D region
- C: The F2 region
- D: The E region

### G3C02

What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?

- (A): The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
- B: The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
- C: The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
- D: The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB

### G3C03

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

- A: Because of temperature inversions
- B: Because it is the densest
- (C): Because it is the highest
- D: Because of the Doppler effect

### G3C04

What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

- A: The long path azimuth of a distant station
- (B): The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
- C: The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
- D: The short path azimuth of a distant station

### G3C05

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

- A: The E region is unstable during daylight hours
- B: The F region is unstable during daylight hours
- C: The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
- (D): The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

### G3C06

What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

- (A): Signals have a fluttering sound
- B: Scatter propagation occurs only at night
- C: Phone signals have high intelligibility
- D: There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength

### G3C07

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

- A: The ionospheric region involved is unstable
- B: The E region is not present
- C: Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
- (D): Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths

### G3C08

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

- A: Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
- B: Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
- (C): Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
- D: Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy

### G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

- A: Chordal hop
- B: Faraday rotation
- C: Short-path
- (D): Scatter

### G3C10

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

- A: Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
- B: Propagation near the MUF
- (C): Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
- D: Double hop propagation near the LUF

### G3C11

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

- A: The F2 region
- B: The F1 region
- (C): The D region
- D: The E region

## Subelement G4

### G4A01

What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?

- (A): To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
- B: To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
- C: To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies
- D: To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth

### G4A02

What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?

- A: More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
- (B): It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
- C: Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
- D: Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated

### G4A03

How does a noise blanker work?

- (A): By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
- B: By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
- C: By clipping noise peaks
- D: By temporarily increasing received bandwidth

### G4A04

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?

- A: A pronounced peak
- B: No change will be observed
- (C): A pronounced dip
- D: A slow, rhythmic oscillation

### G4A05

Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?

- A: To reduce harmonic radiation
- (B): To prevent excessive drive
- C: To increase overall efficiency
- D: To balance the transmitter audio frequency response

### G4A06

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

- A: Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
- B: All these choices are correct
- (C): Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
- D: Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna

### G4A07

What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?

- A: CW signals may become severely attenuated
- B: Received frequency may become unstable
- C: Received frequency may shift several kHz
- (D): Received signals may become distorted

### G4A08

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

- A: Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
- B: Minimum SWR on the antenna
- (C): Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
- D: Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current

### G4A09

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?

- A: To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level
- (B): To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
- C: To prevent key clicks on CW
- D: To prevent transient overmodulation

### G4A10

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

- (A): Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
- B: Automatic transmit/receive switching
- C: Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
- D: To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter

### G4A11

Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

- A: ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
- B: When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
- C: All these choices are correct
- (D): The ALC action distorts the signal

### G4A12

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

- A: To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
- B: To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
- C: To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
- (D): To transmit on one frequency and listen on another

### G4A13

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

- A: To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
- B: To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
- C: To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
- (D): To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals

### G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

- A: An ohmmeter
- (B): An oscilloscope
- C: A signal generator
- D: An ammeter

### G4B02

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

- A: Greater precision
- B: An oscilloscope uses less power
- C: Complex impedances can be easily measured
- (D): Complex waveforms can be measured

### G4B03

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

- (A): An oscilloscope
- B: A field strength meter
- C: A wavemeter
- D: A sidetone monitor

### G4B04

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

- A: The local oscillator of the transmitter
- B: An external RF oscillator
- (C): The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
- D: The transmitter balanced mixer output

### G4B05

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

- A: It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured
- B: It improves the frequency response
- (C): It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
- D: It improves the resolution of the readings

### G4B06

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

- A: Better for measuring computer circuits
- B: Faster response
- (C): Higher precision
- D: Less prone to overload

### G4B07

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

- (A): Two non-harmonically related audio signals
- B: Two swept frequency tones
- C: Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
- D: Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude

### G4B08

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

- (A): Linearity
- B: Percentage of carrier phase shift
- C: Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
- D: Percentage of frequency modulation

### G4B09

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

- (A): When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
- B: When testing logic circuits
- C: When high precision is desired
- D: When measuring the frequency of an oscillator

### G4B10

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

- A: Radio wave propagation
- B: RF interference
- C: Antenna front-to-back ratio
- (D): Standing wave ratio

### G4B11

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

- A: All these choices are correct
- (B): Antenna and feed line
- C: Receiver
- D: Transmitter

### G4B12

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

- A: Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
- (B): Received power that interferes with SWR readings
- C: Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
- D: All these choices are correct

### G4B13

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

- A: Power output from a transmitter
- B: Gain of a directional antenna
- C: Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
- (D): Impedance of coaxial cable

### G4C01

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

- A: Forward-biased diode
- B: Reverse-biased diode
- C: Bypass inductor
- (D): Bypass capacitor

### G4C02

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

- (A): Arcing at a poor electrical connection
- B: Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
- C: Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors
- D: Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna

### G4C03

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

- A: Clearly audible speech
- B: A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
- C: On-and-off humming or clicking
- (D): Distorted speech

### G4C04

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

- A: A chirpy CW signal
- B: A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
- C: Severely distorted audio
- (D): On-and-off humming or clicking

### G4C05

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

- A: Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
- B: The ground rod is resonant
- C: Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
- (D): The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

### G4C06

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

- A: A ground loop
- B: Overheating of ground straps
- (C): High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
- D: Corrosion of the ground rod

### G4C07

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

- A: Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
- B: Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
- (C): A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
- D: All these choices are correct

### G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

- A: Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable
- (B): Place a ferrite choke on the cable
- C: Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference
- D: Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal

### G4C09

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

- A: Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
- (B): Bond equipment enclosures together
- C: Connect all ground conductors in series
- D: Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire

### G4C10

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?

- (A): You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
- B: The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
- C: An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
- D: You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station

### G4C11

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

- A: Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
- (B): Bonding all equipment enclosures together
- C: Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
- D: Using surge suppressor power outlets

### G4C12

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

- A: It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
- (B): It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
- C: It prevents signal overload
- D: It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit

### G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

- A: Prevent distortion of voice signals
- (B): Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
- C: Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
- D: Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation

### G4D02

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

- A: It increases peak power
- (B): It increases average power
- C: It reduces harmonic distortion
- D: It reduces intermodulation distortion

### G4D03

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

- (A): All these choices are correct
- B: Excess intermodulation products
- C: Excessive background noise
- D: Distorted speech

### G4D04

What does an S meter measure?

- A: Carrier suppression
- B: Impedance
- (C): Received signal strength
- D: Transmitter power output

### G4D05

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

- (A): It is 100 times more powerful
- B: It is 20 times less powerful
- C: It is 10 times less powerful
- D: It is 20 times more powerful

### G4D06

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

- (A): 6 dB
- B: 15 dB
- C: 12 dB
- D: 18 dB

### G4D07

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

- A: Approximately 8 times
- B: Approximately 2 times
- (C): Approximately 4 times
- D: Approximately 1.5 times

### G4D08

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

- A: 7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
- B: 7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
- C: 7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
- (D): 7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz

### G4D09

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

- A: 14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz
- B: 14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz
- C: 14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz
- (D): 14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz

### G4D10

How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

- A: At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
- B: At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
- (C): At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
- D: At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

### G4D11

How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

- A: At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
- (B): At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
- C: At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
- D: At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

### G4E01

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

- (A): To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
- B: To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
- C: To lower the radiation angle
- D: To reduce radiation resistance

### G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

- A: To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
- (B): To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
- C: To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
- D: To increase the “Q” of the antenna

### G4E03

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

- A: To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
- (B): To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
- C: To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
- D: To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

### G4E04

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

- A: The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
- B: The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
- C: Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
- (D): The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver

### G4E05

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

- A: FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
- (B): Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
- C: “Picket fencing”
- D: The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver

### G4E06

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

- (A): Operating bandwidth may be very limited
- B: Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
- C: Q of the antenna will be very low
- D: Harmonic radiation may increase

### G4E07

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

- A: The battery charging system
- (B): All these choices are correct
- C: The control computers
- D: The fuel delivery system

### G4E08

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

- A: Shunt
- B: Full-wave bridge
- (C): Series-parallel
- D: Bypass

### G4E09

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

- (A): 0.5 VDC
- B: 0.02 VDC
- C: 0.2 VDC
- D: 1.38 VDC

### G4E10

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

- A: To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels
- (B): To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
- C: To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
- D: To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage

### G4E11

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

- A: A series resistor must be in place
- B: Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
- (C): The solar panel must have a charge controller
- D: Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up

## Subelement G5

### G5A01

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

- A: Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
- B: Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance
- C: Resonance causes impedance to be very high
- (D): Resonance causes impedance to be very low

### G5A02

What is reactance?

- (A): Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
- B: Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
- C: Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
- D: Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance

### G5A03

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

- A: Conductance
- (B): Reactance
- C: Reluctance
- D: Admittance

### G5A04

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

- A: Reluctance
- (B): Reactance
- C: Conductance
- D: Admittance

### G5A05

How does an inductor react to AC?

- A: As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
- B: As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
- C: As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
- (D): As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

### G5A06

How does a capacitor react to AC?

- A: As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
- B: As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
- (C): As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
- D: As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

### G5A07

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

- A: Susceptance
- B: Reluctance
- (C): Admittance
- D: Conductance

### G5A08

What is impedance?

- A: The product of current and voltage
- B: The product of current and reactance
- C: The ratio of current to voltage
- (D): The ratio of voltage to current

### G5A09

What unit is used to measure reactance?

- A: Ampere
- B: Farad
- C: Siemens
- (D): Ohm

### G5A10

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

- (A): All these choices are correct
- B: A transformer
- C: A Pi-network
- D: A length of transmission line

### G5A11

What letter is used to represent reactance?

- A: B
- B: Z
- C: Y
- (D): X

### G5A12

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

- A: Resistance is cancelled
- (B): Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel
- C: Current and voltage are equal
- D: The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves

### G5B01

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

- A: Approximately 9 dB
- B: Approximately 6 dB
- (C): Approximately 3 dB
- D: Approximately 2 dB

### G5B02

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

- A: It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
- (B): It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
- C: It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
- D: It equals the average of the branch currents

### G5B03

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

- (A): 200 watts
- B: 400 watts
- C: 3200 watts
- D: 0.5 watts

### G5B04

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

- (A): 2.4 watts
- B: 60 watts
- C: 6 watts
- D: 24 watts

### G5B05

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

- A: Approximately 11 milliwatts
- (B): Approximately 61 milliwatts
- C: Approximately 11 watts
- D: Approximately 61 watts

### G5B06

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

- A: 1.4 watts
- B: 400 watts
- (C): 100 watts
- D: 353.5 watts

### G5B07

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

- A: The peak-to-peak value
- (B): The RMS value
- C: The peak value
- D: The reciprocal of the RMS value

### G5B08

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

- (A): 339.4 volts
- B: 169.7 volts
- C: 84.8 volts
- D: 240.0 volts

### G5B09

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

- (A): 12 volts
- B: 24 volts
- C: 8.5 volts
- D: 34 volts

### G5B10

What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

- A: 12.2 percent
- B: 10.9 percent
- C: 25.9 percent
- (D): 20.6 percent

### G5B11

What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

- A: 2.00
- (B): 1.00
- C: 1.414
- D: 0.707

### G5B12

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

- (A): 245 volts
- B: 346 volts
- C: 173 volts
- D: 692 volts

### G5B13

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

- (A): 1060 watts
- B: 2120 watts
- C: 1500 watts
- D: 530 watts

### G5B14

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

- A: 2500 watts
- (B): 625 watts
- C: 5000 watts
- D: 8.75 watts

### G5C01

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

- A: Displacement current coupling
- (B): Mutual inductance
- C: Mutual capacitance
- D: Capacitive coupling

### G5C02

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

- (A): The input voltage is multiplied by 4
- B: The input voltage is divided by 4
- C: Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
- D: Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload

### G5C03

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

- A: 17 ohms
- B: 0.17 ohms
- C: 80 ohms
- (D): 5.9 ohms

### G5C04

What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

- (A): 67 ohms
- B: 150 ohms
- C: 300 ohms
- D: 75 ohms

### G5C05

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

- (A): To accommodate the higher current of the primary
- B: To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
- C: To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
- D: To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary

### G5C06

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

- (A): 360 volts
- B: 40 volts
- C: 25.5 volts
- D: 120 volts

### G5C07

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

- A: 24 to 1
- B: 12 to 1
- C: 144 to 1
- (D): 3.5 to 1

### G5C08

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

- A: 576.9 nanofarads
- (B): 10.750 nanofarads
- C: 3,583 picofarads
- D: 1,733 picofarads

### G5C09

What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

- A: 3.0 microfarads
- B: 0.33 microfarads
- C: 300 microfarads
- (D): 33.3 microfarads

### G5C10

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

- A: 0.30 henries
- B: 30 millihenries
- (C): 3.3 millihenries
- D: 3.3 henries

### G5C11

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

- (A): 70 millihenries
- B: 14.3 millihenries
- C: 7 millihenries
- D: 1,000 millihenries

### G5C12

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

- A: 0.07 microfarads
- (B): 14.3 microfarads
- C: 70 microfarads
- D: 1,000 microfarads

### G5C13

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

- A: An inductor in series
- B: A capacitor in series
- (C): A capacitor in parallel
- D: An inductor in parallel

### G5C14

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

- A: An inductor in parallel
- (B): An inductor in series
- C: A capacitor in parallel
- D: A capacitor in series

## Subelement G6

### G6A01

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

- A: 8.5 volts
- (B): 10.5 volts
- C: 6 volts
- D: 12 volts

### G6A02

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

- A: High voltage
- (B): High discharge current
- C: Long life
- D: Rapid recharge

### G6A03

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

- A: 1.0 volts
- B: 0.7 volts
- (C): 0.3 volts
- D: 0.1 volt

### G6A04

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

- A: Tight tolerance
- B: Inexpensive RF capacitor
- C: Much less leakage than any other type
- (D): High capacitance for a given volume

### G6A05

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

- A: 1.0 volts
- (B): 0.7 volts
- C: 0.3 volts
- D: 0.1 volt

### G6A06

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

- A: The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
- B: The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit
- (C): The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
- D: The resistor could overheat

### G6A07

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

- (A): Saturation and cutoff
- B: The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
- C: Enhancement and depletion modes
- D: Peak and valley current points

### G6A08

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

- (A): Comparatively low cost
- B: Tight tolerance
- C: High capacitance for given volume
- D: High stability

### G6A09

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

- (A): The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
- B: The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
- C: The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
- D: The gate is formed by a back-biased junction

### G6A10

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

- A: Screen grid
- B: Trigger electrode
- C: Suppressor grid
- (D): Control grid

### G6A11

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

- (A): It becomes capacitive
- B: Harmonics are generated
- C: Its reactance increases
- D: Catastrophic failure is likely

### G6A12

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

- A: To increase the control grid resistance
- (B): To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
- C: To increase efficiency
- D: To decrease plate resistance

### G6B01

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

- A: Its thickness
- (B): The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
- C: The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter
- D: Its conductivity

### G6B02

What is meant by the term MMIC?

- A: Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
- (B): Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
- C: Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
- D: Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit

### G6B03

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

- (A): Low power consumption
- B: High power handling capability
- C: Better suited for RF amplification
- D: Better suited for power supply regulation

### G6B04

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

- A: 500 MHz
- B: 40 GHz
- C: 50 MHz
- (D): 4 GHz

### G6B05

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

- (A): All these choices are correct
- B: Large values of inductance may be obtained
- C: The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
- D: Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core

### G6B06

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

- A: MMIC
- B: Digital
- (C): Analog
- D: Programmable Logic

### G6B07

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

- A: A low noise figure VHF connector
- B: A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
- (C): A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
- D: A nickel plated version of the PL-259

### G6B08

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

- A: In the tunnel-effect region
- B: At the Zener voltage
- (C): Forward biased
- D: Reverse biased

### G6B09

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

- A: It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
- B: By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
- (C): By creating an impedance in the current’s path
- D: Ferrites expel magnetic fields

### G6B10

What is an SMA connector?

- A: A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
- B: A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
- (C): A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
- D: A type-S to type-M adaptor

### G6B11

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

- A: PL-259
- (B): RCA Phono
- C: Type N
- D: BNC

## Subelement G7

### G7A01

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

- A: It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
- B: It eliminates ground loop current
- C: It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
- (D): It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed

### G7A02

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

- A: Transformers and transducers
- B: Diodes
- C: All these choices are correct
- (D): Capacitors and inductors

### G7A03

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

- (A): Full-wave
- B: Synchronous
- C: Half-wave
- D: Full-wave bridge

### G7A04

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

- A: The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
- (B): Only one diode is required
- C: The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
- D: More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier

### G7A05

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

- A: 270 degrees
- (B): 180 degrees
- C: 360 degrees
- D: 90 degrees

### G7A06

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

- A: 270 degrees
- B: 180 degrees
- C: 90 degrees
- (D): 360 degrees

### G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

- A: A steady DC voltage
- (B): A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
- C: A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
- D: A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input

### G7A08

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

- A: Inherently more stable
- B: Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
- (C): High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
- D: Fewer circuit components are required

### G7A09

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

- A: Symbol 4
- B: Symbol 2
- (C): Symbol 1
- D: Symbol 5

### G7A10

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

- A: Symbol 11
- (B): Symbol 5
- C: Symbol 1
- D: Symbol 4

### G7A11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

- A: Symbol 1
- (B): Symbol 2
- C: Symbol 11
- D: Symbol 7

### G7A12

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

- A: Symbol 7
- (B): Symbol 6
- C: Symbol 4
- D: Symbol 1

### G7A13

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

- (A): Symbol 7
- B: Symbol 6
- C: Symbol 1
- D: Symbol 11

### G7B01

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

- A: To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
- B: To keep the carrier on frequency
- (C): To eliminate self-oscillations
- D: To limit the modulation index

### G7B02

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

- A: Class AB
- B: Class A
- (C): Class C
- D: Class B

### G7B03

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

- (A): Output is high only when both inputs are high
- B: Output is high when either or both inputs are low
- C: Output is low when either or both inputs are high
- D: Output is low only when both inputs are high

### G7B04

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

- (A): 100%
- B: Less than 50%
- C: 50%
- D: More than 50% but less than 100%

### G7B05

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

- A: 16
- B: 3
- (C): 8
- D: 6

### G7B06

What is a shift register?

- A: An analog mixer
- (B): A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
- C: A digital mixer
- D: An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations

### G7B07

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

- A: An amplifier and a divider
- B: A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
- (C): A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
- D: A frequency multiplier and a mixer

### G7B08

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

- A: Add the RF input power to the DC output power
- B: Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
- C: Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
- (D): Divide the RF output power by the DC input power

### G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

- (A): The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
- B: The time delay of the lag circuit
- C: The number of stages in the divider
- D: The number of stages in the counter

### G7B10

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

- A: Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
- B: An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
- C: A Class C high efficiency amplifier
- (D): An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform

### G7B11

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

- (A): FM
- B: SSB
- C: All these choices are correct
- D: AM

### G7C01

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

- A: IF amplifier
- B: Carrier oscillator
- (C): Filter
- D: RF amplifier

### G7C02

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

- A: Audio with equalized frequency response
- B: Frequency modulated RF
- (C): Double-sideband modulated RF
- D: Audio extracted from the modulation signal

### G7C03

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

- A: To minimize transmitter power output
- (B): To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
- C: To reduce power supply ripple
- D: To minimize radiation resistance

### G7C04

How is a product detector used?

- A: Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
- B: Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
- (C): Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
- D: Used in a transmitter to perform frequency multiplication

### G7C05

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

- A: Extremely narrow tuning range
- B: Relatively high-power output
- C: Pure sine wave output
- (D): Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator

### G7C06

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

- (A): A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
- B: Fewer digital components are required
- C: The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
- D: Mixing products are greatly reduced

### G7C07

What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?

- A: Ultimate rejection
- B: Return loss
- C: Q
- (D): Insertion loss

### G7C08

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

- A: Input amplifier gain
- B: Demodulator stage bandwidth
- C: Input amplifier noise figure
- (D): All these choices are correct

### G7C09

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

- A: 180 degrees
- B: 45 degrees
- (C): 90 degrees
- D: Zero

### G7C10

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

- (A): All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
- B: Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
- C: The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
- D: Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog

### G7C11

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

- A: Detection
- (B): All these choices are correct
- C: Modulation
- D: Filtering

### G7C12

What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power?

- (A): Cutoff frequency
- B: Notch frequency
- C: Neper frequency
- D: Rolloff frequency

### G7C13

What term specifies a filter’s maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?

- A: Insertion loss
- B: Rolloff
- C: Notch depth
- (D): Ultimate rejection

### G7C14

The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?

- A: Cutoff and rolloff
- B: Image and harmonic
- (C): Upper and lower half-power
- D: Pole and zero

## Subelement G8

### G8A01

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

- A: By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
- B: By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
- C: By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
- (D): By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal

### G8A02

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

- A: Phase convolution
- (B): Phase modulation
- C: Phase inversion
- D: Phase transformation

### G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

- (A): Frequency modulation
- B: Frequency conversion
- C: Frequency convolution
- D: Frequency transformation

### G8A04

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

- (A): Phase modulation
- B: Pulse modulation
- C: Amplitude modulation
- D: Multiplex modulation

### G8A05

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

- A: Phase modulation
- B: Power modulation
- C: Frequency modulation
- (D): Amplitude modulation

### G8A06

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

- A: Its encoding provides error correction
- B: It is sideband sensitive
- C: Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
- (D): All these choices are correct

### G8A07

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

- A: Frequency modulation
- (B): Single sideband
- C: Vestigial sideband
- D: Phase modulation

### G8A08

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

- A: Frequency drift
- B: Insufficient audio
- (C): Excessive bandwidth
- D: Insufficient bandwidth

### G8A09

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

- (A): 8-tone frequency shift keying
- B: 8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
- C: Amplitude compressed AM
- D: Vestigial sideband

### G8A10

What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

- A: Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
- B: The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
- (C): Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
- D: The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed

### G8A11

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

- (A): The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
- B: The bandwidth of the modulated signal
- C: Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
- D: The carrier frequency that contains the signal

### G8A12

What is QPSK modulation?

- A: Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
- B: Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
- (C): Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits
- D: Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals

### G8A13

What is a link budget?

- A: The sum of antenna gains minus system losses
- B: The financial costs associated with operating a radio link
- C: The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity
- (D): The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver

### G8A14

What is link margin?

- A: Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB
- B: Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity
- C: The opposite of fade margin
- (D): The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver

### G8B01

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

- A: Image frequency
- B: RF input
- (C): Local oscillator
- D: Beat frequency oscillator

### G8B02

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

- A: Mixer interference
- (B): Image response
- C: Intermediate interference
- D: Quadrature response

### G8B03

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

- A: Phase inversion
- (B): Heterodyning
- C: Frequency inversion
- D: Synthesizing

### G8B04

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

- A: Balanced converter
- B: Reactance modulator
- (C): Multiplier
- D: Mixer

### G8B05

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

- (A): Odd-order
- B: Intercept point
- C: Second harmonics
- D: Even-order

### G8B06

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

- A: 8 kHz
- B: 5 kHz
- C: 3 kHz
- (D): 16 kHz

### G8B07

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

- A: 5 kHz
- B: 60 kHz
- (C): 416.7 Hz
- D: 101.75 Hz

### G8B08

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

- (A): Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
- B: To prevent overmodulation
- C: To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
- D: To aid in tuning your transmitter

### G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

- A: It is required by FCC rules
- (B): It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
- C: It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
- D: It improves impedance matching of the antenna

### G8B10

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

- A: Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
- B: Bandwidth is half the symbol rate
- (C): Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
- D: Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth

### G8B11

What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

- A: The average
- B: The arithmetic product
- C: The ratio
- (D): The sum and difference

### G8B12

What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

- A: Heterodyning
- (B): Intermodulation
- C: Rolloff
- D: Detection

### G8B13

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

- (A): 2F1-F2
- B: 3F1-F2
- C: 5F1-3F2
- D: All these choices are correct

### G8C01

On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?

- A: 432 MHz
- B: 10.7 GHz
- (C): 2.4 GHz
- D: 902 MHz

### G8C02

Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?

- A: PSK31
- B: SSB-SC
- C: MFSK16
- (D): WSPR

### G8C03

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

- A: Directory
- (B): Header
- C: Preamble
- D: Trailer

### G8C04

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

- A: A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
- (B): A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
- C: A code using error detection and correction
- D: A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits

### G8C05

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

- A: Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions
- (B): Request retransmission of the packet
- C: Packet was received without error
- D: Entire file received correctly

### G8C06

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

- A: Packets will be routed incorrectly
- (B): The connection is dropped
- C: Encoding reverts to the default character set
- D: The checksum overflows

### G8C07

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

- A: AMTOR
- B: MSK144
- (C): FT8
- D: MFSK32

### G8C08

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

- A: Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
- B: Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
- C: Upper case letters are sent with more power
- (D): Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission

### G8C09

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

- A: Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths
- (B): If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
- C: Having more nodes increases signal strengths
- D: More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference

### G8C10

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

- A: By using a parity bit with each character
- B: By using the Varicode character set
- (C): By transmitting redundant information with the data
- D: By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength

### G8C11

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

- A: On and off
- (B): Mark and space
- C: Dot and dash
- D: High and low

### G8C12

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

- A: Viterbi
- (B): Varicode
- C: Volumetric
- D: Binary

### G8C13

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

- A: Insufficient modulation
- B: Long path propagation
- C: Backscatter propagation
- (D): Overmodulation

### G8C14

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

- (A): Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
- B: Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
- C: Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
- D: Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity

### G8C15

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

- (A): The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
- B: The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal
- C: The signal is S3 (weak signals)
- D: The signal is 3 dB over S9

### G8C16

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

- A: WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
- B: Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
- C: FT8, FT4, and FST4
- (D): DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion

## Subelement G9

### G9A01

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

- A: The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
- (B): The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
- C: The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
- D: The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal

### G9A02

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

- A: High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
- B: There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
- (C): High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
- D: High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss

### G9A03

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?

- A: 50 ohms
- B: 100 ohms
- (C): 450 ohms
- D: 75 ohms

### G9A04

What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?

- A: Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
- B: Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
- C: Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
- (D): A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance

### G9A05

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

- A: Attenuation is independent of frequency
- (B): Attenuation increases
- C: Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation
- D: Attenuation decreases

### G9A06

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

- A: Ohms per 100 feet
- (B): Decibels per 100 feet
- C: Decibels per 1,000 feet
- D: Ohms per 1,000 feet

### G9A07

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

- A: The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
- (B): The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
- C: The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
- D: The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long

### G9A08

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

- A: Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
- B: 1:1
- (C): 5:1
- D: Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line

### G9A09

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

- (A): 4:1
- B: 2:1
- C: 1:4
- D: 1:2

### G9A10

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

- A: 1:2
- (B): 5:1
- C: 2:1
- D: 1:5

### G9A11

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

- (A): Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
- B: Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
- C: Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
- D: Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line

### G9B01

What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?

- A: It produces only vertically polarized radiation
- B: It must be longer than 1 wavelength
- C: It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
- (D): Station equipment may carry significant RF current

### G9B02

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

- (A): Slope the radials downward
- B: Slope the radials upward
- C: Coil the radials
- D: Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength

### G9B03

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

- A: Hemispherical
- (B): Omnidirectional in azimuth
- C: Bi-directional in azimuth
- D: Isotropic

### G9B04

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

- A: It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
- B: It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
- C: It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
- (D): It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna

### G9B05

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

- A: Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
- B: If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
- C: If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
- (D): If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional

### G9B06

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

- (A): On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
- B: At the center of the antenna
- C: Parallel to the antenna element
- D: As high as possible above the ground

### G9B07

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

- A: It steadily increases
- (B): It steadily decreases
- C: It is unaffected by the height above ground
- D: It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground

### G9B08

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

- (A): It steadily increases
- B: It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
- C: It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
- D: It steadily decreases

### G9B09

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

- A: Lower radiation resistance
- B: Lower feed point impedance
- C: Shorter radials
- (D): Lower ground losses

### G9B10

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

- A: 8 feet
- B: 24 feet
- (C): 33 feet
- D: 16 feet

### G9B11

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

- A: 84 feet
- B: 42 feet
- C: 263 feet
- (D): 132 feet

### G9B12

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

- A: 11 feet
- B: 16 feet
- (C): 8 feet
- D: 21 feet

### G9C01

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

- A: Loading coils in series with the element
- B: Closer element spacing
- C: Tapered-diameter elements
- (D): Larger-diameter elements

### G9C02

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

- A: 3/4 wavelength
- B: 1/4 wavelength
- C: 1 wavelength
- (D): 1/2 wavelength

### G9C03

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

- A: The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
- B: Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
- C: They are all the same length
- (D): The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter

### G9C04

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

- (A): Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
- B: Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
- C: Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
- D: Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher

### G9C05

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

- (A): Gain increases
- B: Front-to-back ratio decreases
- C: Beamwidth increases
- D: Resonant frequency is lower

### G9C06

What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

- (A): The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
- B: The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
- C: The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
- D: The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain

### G9C07

What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?

- A: The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
- (B): The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
- C: The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
- D: The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation

### G9C08

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

- (A): Approximately 3 dB higher
- B: Approximately 1.5 dB higher
- C: Approximately 9 dB higher
- D: Approximately 6 dB higher

### G9C09

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

- A: The physical length of the boom
- (B): All these choices are correct
- C: The number of elements on the boom
- D: The spacing of each element along the boom

### G9C10

What is a beta or hairpin match?

- A: A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
- B: A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
- (C): A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
- D: A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna

### G9C11

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

- A: It does not require any inductors or capacitors
- (B): It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
- C: All these choices are correct
- D: It is useful for matching multiband antennas

### G9D01

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

- A: A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
- B: A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
- (C): A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
- D: A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground

### G9D02

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

- A: Very low
- (B): Very high
- C: Approximately 300 ohms
- D: Approximately 50 ohms

### G9D03

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?

- A: Broadside to the plane of the halo
- B: Opposite the feed point
- (C): Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
- D: On the same side as the feed point

### G9D04

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

- A: To prevent out-of-band operation
- (B): To enable multiband operation
- C: To notch spurious frequencies
- D: To provide balanced feed point impedance

### G9D05

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

- A: It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
- B: It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
- C: It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
- (D): It narrows the main lobe in elevation

### G9D06

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

- A: Harmonic suppression
- B: Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
- C: Polarization diversity
- (D): Wide bandwidth

### G9D07

Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

- A: Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
- B: Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
- (C): Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom
- D: SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length

### G9D08

How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

- A: By extending and retracting the whip
- (B): By varying the base loading inductance
- C: By deploying a capacitance hat
- D: By varying its body capacitance

### G9D09

What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?

- A: Directional transmitting for low HF bands
- B: Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
- C: Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
- (D): Directional receiving for MF and low HF bands

### G9D10

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

- A: Broadside and in the plane of the loop
- B: In the plane of the loop
- C: Electrically small loops are omnidirectional
- (D): Broadside to the loop

### G9D11

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

- (A): They have poor harmonic rejection
- B: They must be fed with open wire line
- C: They present low impedance on all design frequencies
- D: They must be used with an antenna tuner

### G9D12

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

- (A): Inverted V
- B: Inverted L
- C: Lazy H
- D: Sloper

## Subelement G0

### G0A01

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

- A: It causes radiation poisoning
- B: It cools body tissue
- C: It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
- (D): It heats body tissue

### G0A02

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

- A: Its power density
- (B): All these choices are correct
- C: Its frequency
- D: Its duty cycle

### G0A03

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

- A: By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
- B: By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
- (C): All these choices are correct
- D: By calculation based on computer modeling

### G0A04

What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

- A: The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
- B: The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
- C: The total time of the exposure
- (D): The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period

### G0A05

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

- A: File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
- (B): Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
- C: Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
- D: All these choices are correct

### G0A06

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

- A: Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
- B: Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
- C: Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
- (D): Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65

### G0A07

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

- (A): A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
- B: A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
- C: High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
- D: Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements

### G0A08

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

- A: Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
- (B): Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
- C: Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
- D: All these choices are correct

### G0A09

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?

- A: A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction
- (B): A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
- C: An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
- D: An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator

### G0A10

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

- (A): Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present
- B: Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
- C: All these choices are correct
- D: Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio

### G0A11

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

- A: Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
- (B): Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
- C: Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
- D: Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation

### G0A12

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

- A: Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
- B: Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
- (C): All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
- D: All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt

### G0B01

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

- (A): Only the hot wires
- B: Only the neutral wire
- C: All wires
- D: Only the ground wire

### G0B02

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

- A: AWG number 8
- B: AWG number 20
- (C): AWG number 12
- D: AWG number 16

### G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

- A: 25 amperes
- (B): 15 amperes
- C: 30 amperes
- D: 20 amperes

### G0B04

Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?

- A: Next to the closest power pole
- B: Parallel to the water supply line
- C: As close to the station equipment as possible
- (D): Outside the building

### G0B05

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

- A: Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
- B: All these choices are correct
- C: Overvoltage on the hot wires
- (D): Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground

### G0B06

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

- A: Acceptable modulation limits
- (B): Electrical safety of the station
- C: RF exposure limits of the human body
- D: Acceptable bandwidth limits

### G0B07

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

- (A): Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
- B: Always hold on to the tower with one hand
- C: Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
- D: All these choices are correct

### G0B08

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

- A: Unground the base of the tower
- B: All these choices are correct
- (C): Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
- D: Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower

### G0B09

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

- A: Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
- B: All these choices are correct
- (C): The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area
- D: The generator must be insulated from ground

### G0B10

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

- A: High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
- B: RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
- C: Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
- (D): Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder

### G0B11

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

- (A): They must be bonded together with all other grounds
- B: Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
- C: Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
- D: They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines

### G0B12

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

- A: To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
- (B): To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
- C: To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty
- D: To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced

### G0B13

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

- A: In series with each ground lead
- B: At the closest power pole ground electrode
- C: On the antenna, opposite the feed point
- (D): Where the feed lines enter the building