# US Amateur Radio Test Question Pool E1-E0

## Subelement E1

### E1A01

Why is it not legal to transmit a 3 kHz bandwidth USB signal with a carrier frequency of 14.348 MHz?

- A: 14.348 MHz is outside the 20-meter band
- (B): The upper 1 kHz of the signal is outside the 20-meter band
- C: USB is not used on 20-meter phone
- D: The lower 1 kHz of the signal is outside the 20-meter band

### E1A02

When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?

- (A): 3 kHz above the lower band edge
- B: 1 kHz above the lower band edge
- C: The exact lower band edge
- D: 300 Hz above the lower band edge

### E1A03

What is the highest legal carrier frequency on the 20-meter band for transmitting a 2.8 kHz wide USB data signal?

- (A): 14.1472 MHz
- B: 14.3490 MHz
- C: 14.0708 MHz
- D: 14.1002 MHz

### E1A04

May an Extra class operator answer the CQ of a station on 3.601 MHz LSB phone?

- A: No, US stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz
- (B): No, the sideband components will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment
- C: Yes, the displayed frequency is within the 75-meter phone band segment
- D: Yes, the entire signal will be inside the SSB allocation for Extra class operators

### E1A05

Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

- (A): Any person holding an FCC issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
- B: Only a person named in an amateur station license grant
- C: Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio license grant
- D: Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

### E1A06

What is the required transmit frequency of a CW signal for channelized 60 meter operation?

- A: On any frequency where the signal’s sidebands are within the channel
- B: At the lowest frequency of the channel
- C: At the highest frequency of the channel
- (D): At the center frequency of the channel

### E1A07

What is the maximum power permitted on the 2200-meter band?

- A: 5 watts EIRP (equivalent isotropic radiated power)
- B: 50 watts PEP (peak envelope power)
- C: 100 watts PEP (peak envelope power)
- (D): 1 watt EIRP (equivalent isotropic radiated power)

### E1A08

If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?

- A: The control operators of all the stations in the system
- B: The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
- (C): The control operator of the originating station
- D: The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications

### E1A09

Except in some parts of Alaska, what is the maximum power permitted on the 630-meter band?

- (A): 5 watts EIRP (equivalent isotropic radiated power)
- B: 50 watts PEP (peak envelope power)
- C: 1 watt EIRP (equivalent isotropic radiated power)
- D: 100 watts PEP (peak envelope power)

### E1A10

If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?

- A: The amateur station operator must agree not to transmit when the main radio of the ship or aircraft is in use
- B: The amateur station must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
- (C): Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
- D: The amateur station must operate only in specific segments of the amateur service HF and VHF bands

### E1A11

What licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a US-registered vessel in international waters?

- A: An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
- B: Only General class or higher amateur licenses
- C: Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
- (D): Any FCC-issued amateur license

### E1B01

Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?

- (A): An emission outside the signal’s necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted
- B: Any transmitted signal that unintentionally interferes with another licensed radio station and whose levels exceed 40 dB below the fundamental power level
- C: A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient
- D: An amateur station transmission made without the proper call sign identification

### E1B02

Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for digital voice or slow-scan TV transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?

- A: 15 kHz
- B: 20 kHz
- C: 10 kHz
- (D): 3 kHz

### E1B03

Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?

- A: 3 miles
- B: 30 miles
- (C): 1 mile
- D: 10 miles

### E1B04

What must the control operator of a repeater operating in the 70-centimeter band do if a radiolocation system experiences interference from that repeater?

- A: Reduce the repeater antenna HAAT (Height Above Average Terrain)
- B: File an FAA NOTAM (Notice to Air Missions) with the repeater system's ERP, call sign, and six-character grid locator
- C: All these choices are correct
- (D): Cease operation or make changes to the repeater that mitigate the interference

### E1B05

What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?

- A: An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area
- B: An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral
- C: An area surrounding the FCC monitoring station in Laurel, Maryland
- (D): An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory

### E1B06

Which of the following additional rules apply if you are erecting an amateur station antenna structure at a site at or near a public use airport?

- A: You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins
- B: You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority per Part 119 of the FAA regulations
- (C): You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of the FCC rules
- D: You may have to enter the height above ground in meters, and the latitude and longitude in degrees, minutes, and seconds on the FAA website

### E1B07

To what type of regulations does PRB-1 apply?

- A: Homeowners associations
- (B): State and local zoning
- C: FAA tower height limits
- D: Use of wireless devices in vehicles

### E1B08

What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receivers involved are of good engineering design?

- A: The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
- B: The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
- C: The amateur station must cease operation
- (D): The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference

### E1B09

Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules?

- A: Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class
- (B): Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
- C: Only stations meeting the FCC Part 97 technical standards for operation during an emergency
- D: Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators

### E1B10

What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?

- A: All these choices are correct
- (B): All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
- C: Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF, and UHF bands
- D: Specific local government channels

### E1B11

What does PRB-1 require of state and local regulations affecting amateur radio antenna size and structures?

- (A): Reasonable accommodations of amateur radio must be made
- B: No limitations may be placed on antenna size or placement
- C: Such structures must be permitted if certified by a registered professional engineer
- D: Such structures must be permitted when use for emergency communications can be demonstrated

### E1C01

What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?

- A: 1.5 kHz
- B: 170 Hz
- (C): 2.8 kHz
- D: 60 Hz

### E1C02

Which of the following apply to communications transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?

- (A): Communications must be limited to those incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature
- B: Third party traffic must be limited to that intended for the exclusive use of government and non-Government Organization (NGOs) involved in emergency relief activities
- C: All transmissions must be in English
- D: All these choices are correct

### E1C03

How long must an operator wait after filing a notification with the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) before operating on the 2200-meter or 630-meter band?

- (A): Operators may operate after 30 days, providing they have not been told that their station is within 1 kilometer of PLC systems using those frequencies
- B: Operators must not operate until approval is received
- C: Operations may commence immediately, and may continue unless interference is reported by the UTC
- D: Operators may not operate until a test signal has been transmitted in coordination with the local power company

### E1C04

What is an IARP?

- A: An indication of increased antenna reflected power
- (B): A permit that allows US amateurs to operate in certain countries of the Americas
- C: A forecast of intermittent aurora radio propagation
- D: The internal amateur radio practices policy of the FCC

### E1C05

Under what situation may a station transmit third party communications while being automatically controlled?

- A: Only when transmitting SSB or CW
- B: Never
- (C): Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
- D: On any mode approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration

### E1C06

Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitted?

- A: You must identify in the official language of the country in which you are operating
- B: You must append "/CEPT" to your call sign
- (C): You must have a copy of FCC Public Notice DA 16-1048
- D: The US embassy must approve of your operation

### E1C07

What notifications must be given before transmitting on the 630- or 2200-meter bands?

- A: An environmental impact statement must be filed with the Department of the Interior
- B: Operators must inform the FAA of their intent to operate, giving their call sign and distance to the nearest runway
- (C): Operators must inform the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) of their call sign and coordinates of the station
- D: A special endorsement must be requested from the FCC

### E1C08

What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station’s transmissions if its control link malfunctions?

- (A): 3 minutes
- B: 30 seconds
- C: 10 minutes
- D: 5 minutes

### E1C09

What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz?

- (A): 1.0
- B: 3.0
- C: 0.5
- D: 2.0

### E1C10

What is the maximum mean power level for a spurious emission below 30 MHz with respect to the fundamental emission?

- A: - 53 dB
- (B): - 43 dB
- C: - 73 dB
- D: - 63 dB

### E1C11

Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, and amateurs from many European countries to operate in the US?

- (A): CEPT
- B: IARP
- C: All these choices are correct
- D: ITU reciprocal license

### E1C12

In what portion of the 630-meter band are phone emissions permitted?

- A: Only the top 3 kHz
- (B): The entire band
- C: None
- D: Only the bottom 3 kHz

### E1D01

What is the definition of telemetry?

- A: Two-way transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
- B: One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance
- (C): One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
- D: Two-way transmissions of data

### E1D02

Which of the following may transmit encrypted messages?

- A: Telecommand signals to terrestrial repeaters
- B: Auxiliary relay links carrying repeater audio
- C: Mesh network backbone nodes
- (D): Telecommand signals from a space telecommand station

### E1D03

What is a space telecommand station?

- (A): An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify, or terminate functions of a space station
- B: An amateur station that receives telemetry from a satellite or balloon more than 50 kilometers above the surface of the Earth
- C: An amateur station located in a satellite or a balloon more than 50 kilometers above the surface of the Earth
- D: An amateur station located on the surface of the Earth for communication with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites

### E1D04

Which of the following is required in the identification transmissions from a balloon-borne telemetry station?

- (A): Call sign
- B: The station's six-character Maidenhead grid locator
- C: The output power of the balloon transmitter
- D: All these choices are correct

### E1D05

What must be posted at the location of a station being operated by telecommand on or within 50 kilometers of the Earth’s surface?

- A: A photocopy of the station license
- B: A label with the name, address, and telephone number of the station licensee
- C: A label with the name, address, and telephone number of the control operator
- (D): All these choices are correct

### E1D06

What is the maximum permitted transmitter output power when operating a model craft by telecommand?

- (A): 1 watt
- B: 5 watts
- C: 100 watts
- D: 2 watts

### E1D07

Which group of HF amateur bands include allocations for space stations?

- A: Satellite operation is permitted on all HF bands
- (B): 40 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
- C: Only 10 meters
- D: 30 meters, 17 meters, and 10 meters

### E1D08

Which VHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?

- A: 6 meters and 2 meters
- (B): 2 meters
- C: 6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters
- D: 2 meters and 1.25 meters

### E1D09

Which UHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?

- A: 33 centimeters and 13 centimeters
- (B): 70 centimeters and 13 centimeters
- C: 70 centimeters and 33 centimeters
- D: 70 centimeters only

### E1D10

Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations of space stations, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator of the station?

- A: Any amateur station approved by AMSAT
- B: All these choices are correct
- C: Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
- (D): Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee

### E1D11

Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

- A: Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra class operators
- (B): Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
- C: Any amateur licensee who has successfully completed the AMSAT space communications course
- D: Only those of Amateur Extra class operators

### E1D12

Which of the following amateur stations may transmit one-way communications?

- A: A local repeater or linked repeater station
- B: All these choices are correct
- C: A message forwarding station or automatically controlled digital station
- (D): A space station, beacon station, or telecommand station

### E1E01

For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?

- (A): Preparing, processing, administering, and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio operator license
- B: No expenses are authorized for reimbursement
- C: Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course
- D: Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials

### E1E02

Who is tasked by Part 97 with maintaining the pools of questions for all US amateur license examinations?

- A: The ARRL
- B: The VEs
- (C): The VECs
- D: The FCC

### E1E03

What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?

- (A): An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate, prepare, and administer amateur operator license examinations
- B: A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations
- C: An organization paid by the volunteer examiner team to publicize and schedule examinations
- D: The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager

### E1E04

What is required to be accredited as a Volunteer Examiner?

- A: The prospective VE must obtain accreditation from the FCC
- (B): A VEC must confirm that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner
- C: The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
- D: Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted

### E1E05

What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?

- A: Destroy the application form
- B: Maintain the application form with the VEC’s records
- (C): Return the application document to the examinee
- D: Send the application form to the FCC and inform the FCC of the grade

### E1E06

Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?

- A: The VEC coordinating the session
- B: The designated monitoring VE
- (C): Each administering VE
- D: Only the VE session manager

### E1E07

What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner’s instructions during an amateur operator license examination?

- (A): Immediately terminate the candidate’s examination
- B: Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination
- C: Immediately terminate everyone’s examination and close the session
- D: Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results

### E1E08

To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?

- A: All these choices are correct
- (B): Relatives of the VE as listed in the FCC rules
- C: Friends of the VE
- D: Employees of the VE

### E1E09

What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

- (A): Revocation of the VE’s amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE’s amateur operator license grant
- B: A fine of up to $1,000 per occurrence
- C: A sentence of up to one year in prison
- D: All these choices are correct

### E1E10

What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?

- A: They must collect and send the documents directly to the FCC
- B: They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading
- C: They must return the documents to the applicant for submission to the FCC according to the FCC instructions
- (D): They must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions

### E1E11

What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?

- A: All these choices are correct
- (B): Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements
- C: Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license
- D: Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing

### E1F01

On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?

- A: Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz
- B: Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz
- (C): Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz
- D: Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz

### E1F02

What privileges are authorized in the US to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the government of Canada?

- A: Full privileges of the General class license on the 80-, 40-, 20-, 15-, and 10-meter bands
- B: Full privileges, up to and including those of the Amateur Extra class license, on the 80-, 40-, 20-, 15-, and 10-meter bands
- C: None, they must obtain a US license
- (D): The operating terms and conditions of the Canadian amateur service license, not to exceed US Amateur Extra class license privileges

### E1F03

Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

- (A): It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator’s station
- B: The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
- C: Gain is less than 23 dB when driven by power of 10 watts or less
- D: It was manufactured and certificated in a country which has a reciprocal certification agreement with the FCC

### E1F04

Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?

- A: A line roughly parallel to and north of the border between the US and Mexico
- (B): A line roughly parallel to and south of the border between the US and Canada
- C: A line roughly parallel to and east of the US Pacific coastline
- D: A line roughly parallel to and west of the US Atlantic coastline

### E1F05

Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?

- A: 222 MHz - 223 MHz
- (B): 420 MHz - 430 MHz
- C: 53 MHz - 54 MHz
- D: 440 MHz - 450 MHz

### E1F06

Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a Special Temporary Authority (STA) to an amateur station?

- A: To allow a licensee who has passed an upgrade exam to operate with upgraded privileges while waiting for posting on the FCC database
- B: To allow use of a special event call sign
- (C): To provide for experimental amateur communications
- D: To allow a VE group with less than three VEs to administer examinations in a remote, sparsely populated area

### E1F07

When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

- A: When the pecuniary interest of the amateur or his or her employer is less than $25
- B: At no time
- (C): When neither the amateur nor their employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications
- D: When the pecuniary interest of the amateur or his or her employer is less than $50

### E1F08

Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?

- A: Communications in a language other than English
- B: Communications that have religious content
- C: Communications that have political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine
- (D): Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules

### E1F09

Which of the following cannot be transmitted over an amateur radio mesh network?

- A: All these choices are correct
- (B): Messages encoded to obscure their meaning
- C: Third party traffic
- D: Email

### E1F10

Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

- (A): Only Technician, General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class operators
- B: Only General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class operators
- C: Any licensed amateur operator
- D: Only Amateur Extra class operators

### E1F11

Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

- A: It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
- (B): It must satisfy the FCC’s spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts or its full output power
- C: It must have received an Underwriters Laboratory certification for electrical safety as well as having met IEEE standard 14.101(B)
- D: It must exhibit a gain of less than 23 dB when driven by 10 watts or less

## Subelement E2

### E2A01

What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?

- A: From north to south
- B: From west to east
- (C): From south to north
- D: From east to west

### E2A02

Which of the following is characteristic of an inverting linear transponder?

- A: Doppler shift is reduced because the uplink and downlink shifts are in opposite directions
- (B): All these choices are correct
- C: Signal position in the band is reversed
- D: Upper sideband on the uplink becomes lower sideband on the downlink, and vice versa

### E2A03

How is an upload signal processed by an inverting linear transponder?

- A: The signal is reduced to I and Q components, and the Q component is filtered out
- B: The signal is detected and remodulated on the reverse sideband
- C: The signal is passed through a nonlinear filter
- (D): The signal is mixed with a local oscillator signal and the difference product is transmitted

### E2A04

What is meant by the “mode” of an amateur radio satellite?

- A: Whether the satellite is in a low earth or geostationary orbit
- (B): The satellite’s uplink and downlink frequency bands
- C: The satellite’s orientation with respect to the Earth
- D: Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit

### E2A05

What do the letters in a satellite’s mode designator specify?

- A: The location of the ground control station
- (B): The uplink and downlink frequency ranges
- C: The polarization of uplink and downlink signals
- D: Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions

### E2A06

What are Keplerian elements?

- A: High-emission heater filaments used in magnetron tubes
- B: Phase reversing elements in a Yagi antenna
- (C): Parameters that define the orbit of a satellite
- D: Encrypting codes used for spread spectrum modulation

### E2A07

Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?

- (A): All these choices are correct
- B: SSB and SSTV
- C: PSK and packet
- D: FM and CW

### E2A08

Why should effective radiated power (ERP) be limited to a satellite that uses a linear transponder?

- A: To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs
- B: To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
- C: To prevent the satellite from emitting out-of-band signals
- (D): To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users

### E2A09

What do the terms “L band” and “S band” specify?

- (A): The 23- and 13-centimeter bands
- B: The 2-meter and 70-centimeter bands
- C: FM and digital store-and-forward systems
- D: Which sideband to use

### E2A10

What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?

- (A): Geostationary
- B: Geomagnetic
- C: HEO
- D: LEO

### E2A11

What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?

- A: A linearly polarized antenna
- B: A log-periodic dipole array
- C: An isotropic antenna
- (D): A circularly polarized antenna

### E2A12

What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an amateur radio satellite?

- A: To upload operational software for the transponder
- (B): To hold digital messages in the satellite for later download
- C: To relay messages between satellites
- D: To delay download of telemetry between satellites

### E2A13

Which of the following techniques is used by digital satellites to relay messages?

- A: Digipeating
- B: Node hopping
- C: Multisatellite relaying
- (D): Store-and-forward

### E2B01

In digital television, what does a coding rate of 3/4 mean?

- A: Data compression reduces data rate by 3/4
- (B): 25% of the data sent is forward error correction data
- C: Three, four-bit words are used to transmit each pixel
- D: 1/4 of the time interval is used as a guard interval

### E2B02

How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?

- A: 1080
- B: 30
- (C): 525
- D: 60

### E2B03

How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

- (A): By scanning odd-numbered lines in one field and even-numbered lines in the next
- B: By scanning lines from left-to-right in one field and right-to-left in the next
- C: By scanning two fields simultaneously
- D: By scanning each field from bottom-to-top

### E2B04

How is color information sent in analog SSTV?

- A: Color is amplitude modulated on the frequency modulated intensity signal
- (B): Color lines are sent sequentially
- C: Color is sent in a color burst at the end of each line
- D: Color information is sent on a 2.8 kHz subcarrier

### E2B05

Which of the following describes the use of vestigial sideband in analog fast-scan TV transmissions?

- A: The vestigial sideband carries the audio information
- (B): Vestigial sideband reduces the bandwidth while increasing the fidelity of low frequency video components
- C: Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture
- D: The vestigial sideband contains chroma information

### E2B06

What is vestigial sideband modulation?

- A: Narrow-band FM modulation achieved by filtering one sideband from the audio before frequency modulating the carrier
- B: Spread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation following single sideband amplitude modulation
- C: A type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted
- (D): Amplitude modulation in which one complete sideband and a portion of the other are transmitted

### E2B07

Which types of modulation are used for amateur television DVB-T signals?

- A: FM and FSK
- (B): QAM and QPSK
- C: All these choices are correct
- D: AM and OOK

### E2B08

What technique allows commercial analog TV receivers to be used for fast-scan TV operations on the 70-centimeter band?

- (A): Transmitting on channels shared with cable TV
- B: Using USB and demodulating the signal with a computer sound card
- C: Using converted satellite TV dishes
- D: Transmitting on the abandoned TV channel 2

### E2B09

What kind of receiver can be used to receive and decode SSTV using the Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) protocol?

- A: AM
- (B): SSB
- C: AREDN
- D: CDMA

### E2B10

What aspect of an analog slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture?

- A: Sync amplitude
- B: Tone amplitude
- C: Sync frequency
- (D): Tone frequency

### E2B11

What is the function of the vertical interval signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission?

- A: To provide vertical synchronization
- (B): To identify the SSTV mode being used
- C: To lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images
- D: To identify the call sign of the station transmitting

### E2B12

What signals SSTV receiving software to begin a new picture line?

- A: Elapsed time
- B: Specific tone amplitudes
- (C): Specific tone frequencies
- D: A two-tone signal

### E2C01

What indicator is required to be used by US-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control and the remote transmitter is located in the US?

- A: / followed by the USPS two-letter abbreviation for the state in which the remote station is located
- (B): No additional indicator is required
- C: /R# where # is the district of the remote station
- D: / followed by the ARRL Section of the remote station

### E2C02

Which of the following file formats is used for exchanging amateur radio log data?

- A: NEC
- (B): ADIF
- C: OCF
- D: ARLD

### E2C03

From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?

- (A): 30 meters
- B: 6 meters
- C: 70 centimeters
- D: 33 centimeters

### E2C04

Which of the following frequencies can be used for amateur radio mesh networks?

- A: The 60-meter band channel centered on 5373 kHz
- B: HF frequencies where digital communications are permitted
- (C): Frequencies shared with various unlicensed wireless data services
- D: Cable TV channels 41-43

### E2C05

What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?

- A: Run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station
- (B): Handle the receiving and sending of confirmations for a DX station
- C: Allocate frequencies for DXpeditions
- D: Communicate to a DXpedition about propagation, band openings, pileup conditions, etc.

### E2C06

During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of SSB or CW activity?

- A: In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency
- B: In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency
- (C): In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency
- D: At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests

### E2C07

What is the Cabrillo format?

- A: A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO
- (B): A standard for submission of electronic contest logs
- C: The most common set of contest rules
- D: A digital protocol specifically designed for rapid contest exchanges

### E2C08

Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the Logbook of The World (LoTW)?

- A: Contacts for Worked All States credit
- B: Special event contacts between stations in the US
- (C): All these choices are correct
- D: Contacts between a US station and a non-US station

### E2C09

What type of equipment is commonly used to implement an amateur radio mesh network?

- A: A computer running EchoLink to provide interface from the radio to the internet
- B: A 440 MHz transceiver with a 9,600-baud modem
- (C): A wireless router running custom firmware
- D: A 2-meter VHF transceiver with a 1,200-baud modem

### E2C10

Why do DX stations often transmit and receive on different frequencies?

- A: Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations
- (B): All these choices are correct
- C: To separate the calling stations from the DX station
- D: To improve operating efficiency by reducing interference

### E2C11

How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station during a contest or in a pileup?

- A: Send your full call sign and grid square
- B: Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words “this is,” then your call sign three times
- (C): Send your full call sign once or twice
- D: Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact

### E2C12

What indicates the delay between a control operator action and the corresponding change in the transmitted signal?

- A: Hang time
- B: Anti-VOX
- (C): Latency
- D: Jitter

### E2D01

Which of the following digital modes is designed for meteor scatter communications?

- A: Hellschreiber
- (B): MSK144
- C: WSPR
- D: APRS

### E2D02

What information replaces signal-to-noise ratio when using the FT8 or FT4 modes in a VHF contest?

- A: RST report
- B: State abbreviation
- (C): Grid square
- D: Serial number

### E2D03

Which of the following digital modes is designed for EME communications?

- (A): Q65
- B: PACTOR III
- C: MSK144
- D: WSPR

### E2D04

What technology is used for real-time tracking of balloons carrying amateur radio transmitters?

- A: PACTOR III
- (B): APRS
- C: FT8
- D: Bandwidth compressed LORAN

### E2D05

What is the characteristic of the JT65 mode?

- A: Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth
- B: Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth
- (C): Decodes signals with a very low signal-to-noise ratio
- D: Symbol rate is 65 baud

### E2D06

Which of the following is a method for establishing EME contacts?

- A: Storing and forwarding digital messages
- B: High-speed CW identification to avoid fading
- (C): Time-synchronous transmissions alternating between stations
- D: Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons reflected from the moon

### E2D07

What digital protocol is used by APRS?

- A: QAM
- (B): AX.25
- C: PACTOR
- D: AMTOR

### E2D08

What type of packet frame is used to transmit APRS beacon data?

- A: Acknowledgement
- B: Burst
- C: Connect
- (D): Unnumbered Information

### E2D09

What type of modulation is used by JT65?

- A: RTTY
- B: PSK
- (C): Multitone AFSK
- D: QAM

### E2D10

What does the packet path WIDE3-1 designate?

- A: Three stations are allowed on frequency, one transmitting at a time
- B: Three subcarriers are permitted, subcarrier one is being used
- C: Three internet gateway stations may receive one transmission
- (D): Three digipeater hops are requested with one remaining

### E2D11

How do APRS stations relay data?

- A: By packet ACK/NAK relay
- B: By C4FM repeaters
- (C): By packet digipeaters
- D: By DMR repeaters

### E2E01

Which of the following types of modulation is used for data emissions below 30 MHz?

- A: Pulse modulation
- (B): FSK
- C: DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
- D: Spread spectrum

### E2E02

Which of the following synchronizes WSJT-X digital mode transmit/receive timing?

- A: Sync-field transmission
- B: Alignment of frequency shifts
- C: Sync-pulse timing
- (D): Synchronization of computer clocks

### E2E03

To what does the "4" in FT4 refer?

- (A): Four-tone continuous-phase frequency shift keying
- B: Four transmit/receive cycles per minute
- C: Multiples of 4 bits of user information
- D: All these choices are correct

### E2E04

Which of the following is characteristic of the FST4 mode?

- A: Seven different tone spacings
- B: Variable transmit/receive periods
- (C): All these choices are correct
- D: Four-tone Gaussian frequency shift keying

### E2E05

Which of these digital modes does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?

- (A): WSPR
- B: MFSK16
- C: PSK31
- D: RTTY

### E2E06

What is the length of an FT8 transmission cycle?

- A: 30 seconds
- B: 8 seconds
- (C): 15 seconds
- D: It varies with the amount of data

### E2E07

How does Q65 differ from JT65?

- A: Keyboard-to keyboard operation is supported
- (B): Multiple receive cycles are averaged
- C: Quadrature modulation is used
- D: All these choices are correct

### E2E08

Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?

- A: RTTY
- (B): PACTOR
- C: PSK31
- D: AMTOR

### E2E09

Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length character coding?

- A: RTTY
- (B): PSK31
- C: MT63
- D: PACTOR

### E2E10

Which of these digital modes has the narrowest bandwidth?

- A: MFSK16
- B: PACTOR IV
- (C): FT8
- D: 170 Hz shift, 45-baud RTTY

### E2E11

What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?

- A: Direct FSK can transmit higher baud rates
- B: Direct FSK occupies less bandwidth
- (C): Direct FSK modulates the transmitter VFO
- D: All these choices are correct

### E2E12

How do ALE stations establish contact?

- A: ALE radios send a constant tone code to establish a frequency for future use
- B: ALE radios activate when they hear their signal echoed by back scatter
- (C): ALE constantly scans a list of frequencies, activating the radio when the designated call sign is received
- D: ALE radios monitor an internet site for the frequency they are being paged on

### E2E13

Which of these digital modes has the highest data throughput under clear communication conditions?

- A: FT8
- B: MFSK16
- (C): PACTOR IV
- D: 170 Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY

## Subelement E3

### E3A01

What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by EME?

- (A): 12,000 miles, if the moon is “visible” by both stations
- B: 5,000 miles, if the moon is at perigee
- C: 2,000 miles, if the moon is at apogee
- D: 2,000 miles, if the moon is at perigee

### E3A02

What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal?

- A: A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
- B: The returning echo is several hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal
- C: A gradual loss of signal as the sun rises
- (D): A fluttery, irregular fading

### E3A03

When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?

- A: When the Moon is full
- B: When the Moon is at apogee
- (C): When the Moon is at perigee
- D: When the MUF is above 30 MHz

### E3A04

In what direction does an electromagnetic wave travel?

- A: It depends on the phase angle of the magnetic field
- B: It depends on the phase angle of the electric field
- (C): It travels at a right angle to the electric and magnetic fields
- D: It travels parallel to the electric and magnetic fields

### E3A05

How are the component fields of an electromagnetic wave oriented?

- (A): They are at right angles
- B: They are parallel
- C: They are tangential
- D: They are 90 degrees out of phase

### E3A06

What should be done to continue a long-distance contact when the MUF for that path decreases due to darkness?

- A: Change to an antenna with a higher takeoff angle
- (B): Switch to a lower frequency HF band
- C: Change to an antenna with greater beam width
- D: Switch to a higher frequency HF band

### E3A07

Atmospheric ducts capable of propagating microwave signals often form over what geographic feature?

- A: Stratocumulus clouds
- B: Nimbus clouds
- C: Mountain ranges
- (D): Large bodies of water

### E3A08

When a meteor strikes the Earth’s atmosphere, a linear ionized region is formed at what region of the ionosphere?

- A: The F2 region
- (B): The E region
- C: The D region
- D: The F1 region

### E3A09

Which of the following frequency ranges is most suited for meteor-scatter communications?

- A: 1.8 MHz - 1.9 MHz
- B: 220 MHz - 450 MHz
- (C): 28 MHz - 148 MHz
- D: 10 MHz - 14 MHz

### E3A10

What determines the speed of electromagnetic waves through a medium?

- A: Birefringence
- B: Resistance and reactance
- C: Evanescence
- (D): The index of refraction

### E3A11

What is a typical range for tropospheric duct propagation of microwave signals?

- (A): 100 miles to 300 miles
- B: 1,200 miles
- C: 10 miles to 50 miles
- D: 2,500 miles

### E3A12

What is most likely to result in auroral propagation?

- A: Quiet geomagnetic conditions
- B: Meteor showers
- C: Extreme low-pressure areas in polar regions
- (D): Severe geomagnetic storms

### E3A13

Which of these emission modes is best for auroral propagation?

- A: FM
- B: SSB
- C: RTTY
- (D): CW

### E3A14

What are circularly polarized electromagnetic waves?

- A: Waves produced by a loop antenna
- B: Waves with an electric field bent into a circular shape
- (C): Waves with rotating electric and magnetic fields
- D: Waves that circle Earth

### E3B01

Where is transequatorial propagation (TEP) most likely to occur?

- A: Between points located at each other’s antipode
- B: Between points located 1,500 miles to 2,000 miles apart on the geomagnetic equator
- C: Through the region where the terminator crosses the geographic equator
- (D): Between points separated by 2,000 miles to 3,000 miles over a path perpendicular to the geomagnetic equator

### E3B02

What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

- (A): 5,000 miles
- B: 2,500 miles
- C: 7,500 miles
- D: 1,000 miles

### E3B03

At what time of day is transequatorial propagation most likely to occur?

- A: Noon
- B: Morning
- (C): Afternoon or early evening
- D: Late at night

### E3B04

What are “extraordinary” and “ordinary” waves?

- (A): Independently propagating, elliptically polarized waves created in the ionosphere
- B: Extraordinary waves exhibit rare long-skip propagation, compared to ordinary waves, which travel shorter distances
- C: Refracted rays and reflected waves
- D: Long-path and short-path waves

### E3B05

Which of the following paths is most likely to support long-distance propagation on 160 meters?

- A: A path entirely in sunlight
- B: Paths at high latitudes
- C: A direct north-south path
- (D): A path entirely in darkness

### E3B06

On which of the following amateur bands is long-path propagation most frequent?

- A: 6 meters and 2 meters
- B: 160 meters and 80 meters
- (C): 40 meters and 20 meters
- D: 10 meters and 6 meters

### E3B07

What effect does lowering a signal’s transmitted elevation angle have on ionospheric HF skip propagation?

- A: The critical frequency increases
- B: The MUF decreases
- C: Faraday rotation becomes stronger
- (D): The distance covered by each hop increases

### E3B08

How does the maximum range of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased?

- (A): It decreases
- B: It peaks at roughly 8 MHz
- C: It stays the same
- D: It increases

### E3B09

At what time of year is sporadic-E propagation most likely to occur?

- A: Around the equinoxes, especially the fall equinox
- B: Around the equinoxes, especially the spring equinox
- C: Around the solstices, especially the winter solstice
- (D): Around the solstices, especially the summer solstice

### E3B10

What is the effect of chordal-hop propagation?

- (A): The signal experiences less loss compared to multi-hop propagation, which uses Earth as a reflector
- B: The MUF for chordal-hop propagation is much lower than for normal skip propagation
- C: Signals travel faster along ionospheric chords
- D: Atmospheric noise is reduced in the direction of chordal-hop propagation

### E3B11

At what time of day is sporadic-E propagation most likely to occur?

- A: Between midnight and sunrise
- B: Between sunset and sunrise
- (C): Between sunrise and sunset
- D: Between sunset and midnight

### E3B12

What is chordal-hop propagation?

- A: Propagation across the geomagnetic equator
- B: Propagation away from the great circle bearing between stations
- C: Signals reflected back toward the transmitting station
- (D): Successive ionospheric refractions without an intermediate reflection from the ground

### E3B13

What type of polarization is supported by ground-wave propagation?

- (A): Vertical
- B: Elliptical
- C: Horizontal
- D: Circular

### E3C01

What is the cause of short-term radio blackouts?

- A: North-oriented interplanetary magnetic field
- (B): Solar flares
- C: Coronal mass ejections
- D: Sunspots on the solar equator

### E3C02

What is indicated by a rising A-index or K-index?

- A: Decreasing disturbance of the geomagnetic field
- B: Higher levels of solar UV radiation
- (C): Increasing disturbance of the geomagnetic field
- D: An increase in the critical frequency

### E3C03

Which of the following signal paths is most likely to experience high levels of absorption when the A-index or K-index is elevated?

- A: Transequatorial
- (B): Through the auroral oval
- C: Sporadic-E
- D: NVIS

### E3C04

What does the value of Bz (B sub z) represent?

- (A): North-south strength of the interplanetary magnetic field
- B: Geomagnetic field stability
- C: Duration of long-delayed echoes
- D: Critical frequency for vertical transmissions

### E3C05

What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that charged particles from the Sun will cause disturbed conditions?

- A: Northward
- B: Westward
- C: Eastward
- (D): Southward

### E3C06

How does the VHF/UHF radio horizon compare to the geographic horizon?

- A: It is approximately 20 percent nearer
- B: They are approximately the same
- (C): It is approximately 15 percent farther
- D: It is approximately 50 percent farther

### E3C07

Which of the following indicates the greatest solar flare intensity?

- A: Class Z
- (B): Class X
- C: Class M
- D: Class A

### E3C08

Which of the following is the space-weather term for an extreme geomagnetic storm?

- A: B9
- B: X5
- C: M9
- (D): G5

### E3C09

What type of data is reported by amateur radio propagation reporting networks?

- (A): Digital-mode and CW signals
- B: Electric field intensity
- C: Solar flux
- D: Magnetic declination

### E3C10

What does the 304A solar parameter measure?

- A: The solar wind velocity at an angle of 304 degrees from the solar equator, correlated to geomagnetic storms
- B: The solar emission at 304 GHz, correlated to X-ray flare levels
- C: The ratio of X-ray flux to radio flux, correlated to sunspot number
- (D): UV emissions at 304 angstroms, correlated to the solar flux index

### E3C11

What does VOACAP software model?

- A: AC current and impedance
- (B): HF propagation
- C: AC voltage and impedance
- D: VHF radio propagation

### E3C12

Which of the following is indicated by a sudden rise in radio background noise across a large portion of the HF spectrum?

- A: Transequatorial propagation on 6 meters is likely
- B: A temperature inversion has occurred
- (C): A coronal mass ejection impact or a solar flare has occurred
- D: Long-path propagation on the higher HF bands is likely

## Subelement E4

### E4A01

Which of the following limits the highest frequency signal that can be accurately displayed on a digital oscilloscope?

- A: All these choices are correct
- (B): Sampling rate of the analog-to-digital converter
- C: Q of the circuit
- D: Analog-to-digital converter reference frequency

### E4A02

Which of the following parameters does a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes?

- A: SWR and time
- B: SWR and frequency
- C: Signal amplitude and time
- (D): Signal amplitude and frequency

### E4A03

Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals and/or intermodulation distortion products generated by an SSB transmitter?

- A: Differential resolver
- (B): Spectrum analyzer
- C: Logic analyzer
- D: Network analyzer

### E4A04

How is compensation of an oscilloscope probe performed?

- A: A DC voltage standard is displayed, and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate
- B: A frequency standard is displayed, and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate
- (C): A square wave is displayed, and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal portions of the displayed wave are as nearly flat as possible
- D: A high frequency sine wave is displayed, and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude

### E4A05

What is the purpose of using a prescaler with a frequency counter?

- A: Multiply a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency
- B: Prevent oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit
- C: Amplify low-level signals for more accurate counting
- (D): Reduce the signal frequency to within the counter's operating range

### E4A06

What is the effect of aliasing on a digital oscilloscope when displaying a waveform?

- (A): A false, jittery low-frequency version of the waveform is displayed
- B: The waveform DC offset will be inaccurate
- C: Calibration of the vertical scale is no longer valid
- D: Excessive blanking occurs, which prevents display of the waveform

### E4A07

Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge?

- (A): Antenna analyzers compute SWR and impedance automatically
- B: Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
- C: All these choices are correct
- D: Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope

### E4A08

Which of the following is used to measure SWR?

- A: Vector network analyzer
- (B): All these choices are correct
- C: Antenna analyzer
- D: Directional wattmeter

### E4A09

Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?

- A: Never use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit
- B: All these choices are correct
- (C): Minimize the length of the probe's ground connection
- D: Never use a high-impedance probe to measure a low-impedance circuit

### E4A10

Which trigger mode is most effective when using an oscilloscope to measure a linear power supply’s output ripple?

- (A): Line
- B: Single-shot
- C: Edge
- D: Level

### E4A11

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

- (A): All these choices are correct
- B: Cable length
- C: Velocity factor
- D: Resonant frequency of a tuned circuit

### E4B01

Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?

- A: Input attenuator accuracy
- B: Temperature coefficient of the logic
- (C): Time base accuracy
- D: Decade divider accuracy

### E4B02

What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt?

- (A): The full scale reading of the voltmeter multiplied by its ohms per volt rating is the input impedance of the voltmeter
- B: The reading in volts multiplied by the ohms per volt rating will determine the power drawn by the device under test
- C: The full scale reading in amps divided by ohms per volt rating will determine the size of shunt needed
- D: The reading in ohms divided by the ohms per volt rating will determine the voltage applied to the circuit

### E4B03

Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain?

- A: S12
- B: S22
- C: S11
- (D): S21

### E4B04

Which S parameter represents input port return loss or reflection coefficient (equivalent to VSWR)?

- A: S12
- B: S22
- (C): S11
- D: S21

### E4B05

What three test loads are used to calibrate an RF vector network analyzer?

- A: 50 ohms through 1/8 wavelength, 1/4 wavelength, and 1/2 wavelength of coaxial cable
- B: Short circuit, open circuit, and resonant circuit
- C: 50 ohms, 75 ohms, and 90 ohms
- (D): Short circuit, open circuit, and 50 ohms

### E4B06

How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?

- A: 112.5 watts
- B: 100 watts
- (C): 75 watts
- D: 125 watts

### E4B07

What do the subscripts of S parameters represent?

- (A): The port or ports at which measurements are made
- B: Relative quality of the data
- C: Frequency order of the measurements
- D: The relative time between measurements

### E4B08

Which of the following can be used to determine the Q of a series-tuned circuit?

- (A): The bandwidth of the circuit's frequency response
- B: The ratio of inductive reactance to capacitive reactance
- C: The frequency shift
- D: The resonant frequency of the circuit

### E4B09

Which of the following can be measured by a two-port vector network analyzer?

- (A): Filter frequency response
- B: Phase noise
- C: Forward power
- D: Pulse rise time

### E4B10

Which of the following methods measures intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?

- A: Modulate the transmitter using two RF signals having non-harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
- (B): Modulate the transmitter using two AF signals having non-harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
- C: Modulate the transmitter using two AF signals having harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter
- D: Modulate the transmitter using two RF signals having harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer

### E4B11

Which of the following can be measured with a vector network analyzer?

- A: Input impedance
- (B): All these choices are correct
- C: Output impedance
- D: Reflection coefficient

### E4C01

What is an effect of excessive phase noise in an SDR receiver’s master clock oscillator?

- A: It can affect the receiver’s frequency calibration
- B: It decreases the receiver’s third-order intercept point
- (C): It can combine with strong signals on nearby frequencies to generate interference
- D: It limits the receiver’s ability to receive strong signals

### E4C02

Which of the following receiver circuits can be effective in eliminating interference from strong out-of-band signals?

- A: A notch filter
- (B): A front-end filter or preselector
- C: A narrow IF filter
- D: A properly adjusted product detector

### E4C03

What is the term for the suppression in an FM receiver of one signal by another stronger signal on the same frequency?

- A: Frequency discrimination
- B: Cross-modulation interference
- (C): Capture effect
- D: Desensitization

### E4C04

What is the noise figure of a receiver?

- A: The ratio of atmospheric noise to phase noise
- (B): The ratio in dB of the noise generated by the receiver to the theoretical minimum noise
- C: The ratio of the noise bandwidth in hertz to the theoretical bandwidth of a resistive network
- D: The ratio in dB of the noise generated in the receiver to atmospheric noise

### E4C05

What does a receiver noise floor of -174 dBm represent?

- A: The receiver noise is 3 dB above theoretical minimum
- B: The receiver noise is 6 dB above the theoretical minimum
- (C): The theoretical noise in a 1 Hz bandwidth at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature
- D: The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver

### E4C06

How much does increasing a receiver’s bandwidth from 50 Hz to 1,000 Hz increase the receiver’s noise floor?

- A: 5 dB
- (B): 13 dB
- C: 10 dB
- D: 3 dB

### E4C07

What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

- (A): The minimum discernible signal
- B: The modulation distortion specification
- C: The meter display sensitivity
- D: The maximum detectable spectrum

### E4C08

An SDR receiver is overloaded when input signals exceed what level?

- (A): The reference voltage of the analog-to-digital converter
- B: The maximum count value of the analog-to-digital converter
- C: One-half of the maximum sampling buffer size
- D: One-half of the maximum sample rate

### E4C09

Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high IF for a superheterodyne HF or VHF communications receiver?

- (A): Easier for front-end circuitry to eliminate image responses
- B: Improved receiver noise figure
- C: Reduced drift
- D: Fewer components in the receiver

### E4C10

What is an advantage of having a variety of receiver bandwidths from which to select?

- A: Receiver power consumption can be reduced when wider bandwidth is not required
- B: Multiple frequencies can be received simultaneously if desired
- (C): Receive bandwidth can be set to match the modulation bandwidth, maximizing signal-to-noise ratio and minimizing interference
- D: The noise figure of the RF amplifier can be adjusted to match the modulation type, thus increasing receiver sensitivity

### E4C11

Why does input attenuation reduce receiver overload on the lower frequency HF bands with little or no impact on signal-to-noise ratio?

- A: The attenuator has a noise filter to suppress interference
- B: The attenuator has a low-pass filter to increase the strength of lower frequency signals
- (C): Atmospheric noise is generally greater than internally generated noise even after attenuation
- D: Signals are attenuated separately from the noise

### E4C12

How does a narrow-band roofing filter affect receiver performance?

- A: It improves intelligibility by using low Q circuitry to reduce ringing
- (B): It improves blocking dynamic range by attenuating strong signals near the receive frequency
- C: It improves sensitivity by reducing front-end noise
- D: All these choices are correct

### E4C13

What is reciprocal mixing?

- (A): Local oscillator phase noise mixing with adjacent strong signals to create interference to desired signals
- B: Two out-of-band signals mixing to generate an in-band spurious signal
- C: In-phase signals cancelling in a mixer resulting in loss of receiver sensitivity
- D: Two digital signals combining from alternate time slots

### E4C14

What is the purpose of the receiver IF Shift control?

- (A): To reduce interference from stations transmitting on adjacent frequencies
- B: To tune in stations slightly off frequency without changing the transmit frequency
- C: To permit listening on a different frequency from the transmitting frequency
- D: To change frequency rapidly

### E4D01

What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?

- A: The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals that will cause one signal to block the other
- B: The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third-order intercept point
- C: The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third-order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor
- (D): The difference in dB between the noise floor and the level of an incoming signal that will cause 1 dB of gain compression

### E4D02

Which of the following describes problems caused by poor dynamic range in a receiver?

- (A): Spurious signals caused by cross modulation and desensitization from strong adjacent signals
- B: Poor weak signal reception caused by insufficient local oscillator injection
- C: Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals
- D: Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband

### E4D03

What creates intermodulation interference between two repeaters in close proximity?

- A: The input frequencies are harmonically related
- B: The output frequencies are harmonically related
- C: The output signals cause feedback in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters
- (D): The output signals mix in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters

### E4D04

Which of the following is used to reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by a nearby transmitter?

- (A): A properly terminated circulator at the output of the repeater’s transmitter
- B: A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver
- C: Utilizing a Class D final amplifier
- D: Utilizing a Class C final amplifier

### E4D05

What transmitter frequencies would create an intermodulation-product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a nearby station transmits on 146.52 MHz?

- A: 146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz
- B: 146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz
- (C): 146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz
- D: 146.30 MHz and 146.90 MHz

### E4D06

What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?

- A: Cross modulation interference
- B: Reciprocal mixing
- (C): Desensitization
- D: Quieting

### E4D07

Which of the following reduces the likelihood of receiver desensitization?

- A: Raise the receiver’s IF frequency
- B: Increase the receiver’s front-end gain
- (C): Insert attenuation before the first RF stage
- D: Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC

### E4D08

What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?

- (A): Nonlinear circuits or devices
- B: Positive feedback
- C: Negative feedback
- D: Lack of neutralization

### E4D09

What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?

- A: To provide broadband attenuation before the first RF stage to prevent intermodulation
- (B): To increase the rejection of signals outside the band being received
- C: To store frequencies that are often used
- D: To allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device

### E4D10

What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

- A: Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
- B: The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
- (C): A pair of 40 dBm input signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product that has the same output amplitude as either of the input signals
- D: A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product that is 40 dB stronger than the input signal

### E4D11

Why are odd-order intermodulation products, created within a receiver, of particular interest compared to other products?

- (A): Odd-order products of two signals in the band being received are also likely to be within the band
- B: Odd-order products are an indication of poor image rejection
- C: Odd-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest
- D: Odd-order products are more likely to overload the IF filters

### E4D12

What is the link margin in a system with a transmit power level of 100 W (+40 dBm), a system antenna gain of 10 dBi, a cable loss of 3 dB, a path loss of 136 dB, a receiver minimum discernable signal of -103 dBm, and a required signal-to-noise ratio of 6 dB?

- A: -14dB
- B: +14dB
- (C): +8dB
- D: -8dB

### E4D13

What is the received signal level with a transmit power of 100 W (+40 dBm), a transmit antenna gain of 6 dBi, a receive antenna gain of 3 dBi, and a path loss of 100 dB?

- (A): -51 dBm
- B: -54 dBm
- C: -60 dBm
- D: -57 dBm

### E4D14

What power level does a receiver minimum discernible signal of -100 dBm represent?

- A: 0.001 microwatts
- B: 100 microwatts
- (C): 0.1 picowatts
- D: 0.1 microwatt

### E4E01

What problem can occur when using an automatic notch filter (ANF) to remove interfering carriers while receiving CW signals?

- A: Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal
- B: All these choices are correct
- (C): Removal of the CW signal as well as the interfering carrier
- D: Excessive ringing

### E4E02

Which of the following types of noise can often be reduced by a digital noise reduction?

- A: Ignition noise
- (B): All these choices are correct
- C: Power line noise
- D: Broadband white noise

### E4E03

Which of the following types of noise are removed by a noise blanker?

- A: Hum and buzz
- B: Broadband white noise
- C: All these choices are correct
- (D): Impulse noise

### E4E04

How can conducted noise from an automobile battery charging system be suppressed?

- (A): By installing ferrite chokes on the charging system leads
- B: By installing filter capacitors in series with the alternator leads
- C: By installing a noise suppression resistor and a blocking capacitor at the battery
- D: By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio’s power lead and a low-pass filter in parallel with the antenna feed line

### E4E05

What is used to suppress radio frequency interference from a line-driven AC motor?

- A: A high-pass filter in series with the motor’s power leads
- (B): A brute-force AC-line filter in series with the motor’s power leads
- C: A bypass choke in parallel with the motor’s field winding
- D: A bypass capacitor in series with the motor’s field winding

### E4E06

What type of electrical interference can be caused by computer network equipment?

- (A): The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific frequencies
- B: A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds
- C: A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station’s receiver
- D: A whining-type noise that continually pulses off and on

### E4E07

Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference?

- A: Use of braided shielding material
- B: Tying all ground connections to a common point resulting in differential-mode currents in the shield
- (C): Common-mode currents on the shield and conductors
- D: Low inductance ground connections at both ends of the shield

### E4E08

What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multiconductor cable?

- A: Reactive current only
- (B): Common-mode current
- C: Differential-mode current
- D: Magnetically-coupled current only

### E4E09

What undesirable effect can occur when using a noise blanker?

- A: The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
- (B): Strong signals may be distorted and appear to cause spurious emissions
- C: FM signals can no longer be demodulated
- D: Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect

### E4E10

Which of the following can create intermittent loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference?

- A: A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display
- B: Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
- C: A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence
- (D): All these choices are correct

### E4E11

What could be the cause of local AM broadcast band signals combining to generate spurious signals on the MF or HF bands?

- (A): Nearby corroded metal connections are mixing and reradiating the broadcast signals
- B: You are receiving skywave signals from a distant station
- C: Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is overloaded
- D: One or more of the broadcast stations is transmitting an over-modulated signal

### E4E12

What causes interference received as a series of carriers at regular intervals across a wide frequency range?

- A: Wireless security camera transmitters
- B: Radar transmitters
- (C): Switch-mode power supplies
- D: Electric fences

### E4E13

Where should a station AC surge protector be installed?

- A: At an AC outlet
- B: On a ground rod outside the station
- C: At the AC service panel
- (D): On the single point ground panel

### E4E14

What is the purpose of a single point ground panel?

- (A): Ensure all lightning protectors activate at the same time
- B: Prevent common-mode transients in multi-wire systems
- C: Eliminate air gaps between protected and non-protected circuits
- D: Remove AC power in case of a short-circuit

## Subelement E5

### E5A01

What can cause the voltage across reactances in a series RLC circuit to be higher than the voltage applied to the entire circuit?

- A: Capacitance
- B: Low quality factor (Q)
- C: Resistance
- (D): Resonance

### E5A02

What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenries, and C is 40 picofarads?

- A: 22.36 MHz
- B: 44.72 MHz
- C: 1.78 MHz
- (D): 3.56 MHz

### E5A03

What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance?

- A: High, compared to the circuit resistance
- B: Approximately equal to inductive reactance
- (C): Approximately equal to circuit resistance
- D: Approximately equal to capacitive reactance

### E5A04

What is the magnitude of the impedance of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?

- (A): Approximately equal to circuit resistance
- B: High compared to the circuit resistance
- C: Approximately equal to inductive reactance
- D: Low compared to the circuit resistance

### E5A05

What is the result of increasing the Q of an impedance-matching circuit?

- (A): Matching bandwidth is decreased
- B: Losses increase
- C: Matching bandwidth is increased
- D: Harmonics increase

### E5A06

What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?

- A: It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times pi, times the square root of (inductance L multiplied by capacitance C)
- B: It is at a minimum
- C: It equals 2 times pi, times the square root of (inductance L multiplied by capacitance C)
- (D): It is at a maximum

### E5A07

What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?

- (A): Minimum
- B: R/L
- C: Maximum
- D: L/R

### E5A08

What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance?

- A: The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
- (B): The voltage and current are in phase
- C: The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
- D: The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees

### E5A09

How is the Q of an RLC parallel resonant circuit calculated?

- A: Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance multiplied by the resistance
- B: Reactance of the inductance multiplied by the reactance of the capacitance
- (C): Resistance divided by the reactance of either the inductance or capacitance
- D: Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance divided by the resistance

### E5A10

What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenries, and C is 10 picofarads?

- A: 7.12 kHz
- B: 23.5 kHz
- C: 23.5 MHz
- (D): 7.12 MHz

### E5A11

What is the half-power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?

- A: 23.67 kHz
- B: 315.6 Hz
- (C): 47.3 kHz
- D: 157.8 Hz

### E5A12

What is the half-power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?

- A: 15.7 kHz
- B: 218.3 kHz
- C: 436.6 kHz
- (D): 31.4 kHz

### E5A13

What is an effect of increasing Q in a series resonant circuit?

- A: Parasitic effects are minimized
- (B): Internal voltages increase
- C: Phase shift can become uncontrolled
- D: Fewer components are needed for the same performance

### E5B01

What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage or to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?

- A: An exponential rate of one
- B: A time factor of one
- (C): One time constant
- D: One exponential period

### E5B02

What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?

- A: X
- B: G
- (C): B
- D: Y

### E5B03

How is impedance in polar form converted to an equivalent admittance?

- A: Take the reciprocal of the angle and change the sign of the magnitude
- B: Square the magnitude and subtract 90 degrees from the angle
- C: Take the square root of the magnitude and add 180 degrees to the angle
- (D): Take the reciprocal of the magnitude and change the sign of the angle

### E5B04

What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?

- A: 55 seconds
- (B): 220 seconds
- C: 440 seconds
- D: 110 seconds

### E5B05

What is the effect on the magnitude of pure reactance when it is converted to susceptance?

- (A): It is replaced by its reciprocal
- B: It is unchanged
- C: It is shifted by 90 degrees
- D: The sign is reversed

### E5B06

What is susceptance?

- A: A measure of the efficiency of a transformer
- (B): The imaginary part of admittance
- C: The ratio of magnetic field to electric field
- D: The magnetic impedance of a circuit

### E5B07

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?

- A: 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
- B: 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
- C: 14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current
- (D): 14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

### E5B08

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 300 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 100 ohms?

- A: 27 degrees with the voltage leading the current
- (B): 63 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
- C: 27 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
- D: 63 degrees with the voltage leading the current

### E5B09

What is the relationship between the AC current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?

- (A): Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
- B: Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
- C: Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
- D: Voltage and current are in phase

### E5B10

What is the relationship between the AC current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?

- A: Voltage and current are in phase
- B: Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
- C: Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
- (D): Voltage leads current by 90 degrees

### E5B11

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?

- A: 63 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
- B: 27 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
- C: 63 degrees with the voltage leading the current
- (D): 27 degrees with the voltage leading the current

### E5B12

What is admittance?

- A: The inverse of reactance
- (B): The inverse of impedance
- C: The term for the on-impedance of a field effect transistor
- D: The term for the gain of a field effect transistor

### E5C01

Which of the following represents pure capacitive reactance of 100 ohms in rectangular notation?

- A: 100 - j0
- B: 0 + j100
- (C): 0 - j100
- D: 100 + j0

### E5C02

How are impedances described in polar coordinates?

- A: By X and R values
- B: By Y and G values
- C: By real and imaginary parts
- (D): By magnitude and phase angle

### E5C03

Which of the following represents a pure inductive reactance in polar coordinates?

- (A): A positive 90 degree phase angle
- B: A negative 45 degree phase angle
- C: A positive 45 degree phase angle
- D: A negative 90 degree phase angle

### E5C04

What type of Y-axis scale is most often used for graphs of circuit frequency response?

- A: Random
- (B): Logarithmic
- C: Scatter
- D: Linear

### E5C05

What kind of diagram is used to show the phase relationship between impedances at a given frequency?

- A: Near field diagram
- B: Venn diagram
- (C): Phasor diagram
- D: Far field diagram

### E5C06

What does the impedance 50 - j25 ohms represent?

- A: 25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms capacitive reactance
- (B): 50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms capacitive reactance
- C: 50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms inductive reactance
- D: 25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms inductive reactance

### E5C07

Where is the impedance of a pure resistance plotted on rectangular coordinates?

- (A): On the horizontal axis
- B: On a horizontal line, offset vertically above the horizontal axis
- C: On the vertical axis
- D: On a line through the origin, slanted at 45 degrees

### E5C08

What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance?

- (A): Polar coordinates
- B: Elliptical coordinates
- C: Maidenhead grid
- D: Faraday grid

### E5C09

When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what do the axes represent?

- (A): The X axis represents the resistive component, and the Y axis represents the reactive component
- B: The X axis represents the reactive component, and the Y axis represents the resistive component
- C: The X axis represents the magnitude, and the Y axis represents the phase angle
- D: The X axis represents the phase angle, and the Y axis represents the magnitude

### E5C10

Which point on Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400-ohm resistor and a 38-picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz?

- A: Point 2
- B: Point 6
- C: Point 5
- (D): Point 4

### E5C11

Which point in Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and an 18-microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?

- A: Point 1
- B: Point 7
- C: Point 8
- (D): Point 3

### E5C12

Which point on Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and a 19-picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?

- A: Point 3
- (B): Point 1
- C: Point 8
- D: Point 7

### E5D01

What is the result of conductor skin effect?

- A: Resistance decreases as frequency increases because electron mobility increases
- B: Resistance increases as temperature increases because of the change in thermal coefficient
- (C): Resistance increases as frequency increases because RF current flows closer to the surface
- D: Resistance decreases as temperature increases because of the change in thermal coefficient

### E5D02

Why is it important to keep lead lengths short for components used in circuits for VHF and above?

- A: To maintain component lifetime
- (B): To minimize inductive reactance
- C: To increase the thermal time constant
- D: All these choices are correct

### E5D03

What is the phase relationship between current and voltage for reactive power?

- A: They are in phase
- (B): They are 90 degrees out of phase
- C: They are out of phase
- D: They are 45 degrees out of phase

### E5D04

Why are short connections used at microwave frequencies?

- A: To increase neutralizing resistance
- B: To increase compensating capacitance
- (C): To reduce phase shift along the connection
- D: To reduce noise figure

### E5D05

What parasitic characteristic causes electrolytic capacitors to be unsuitable for use at RF?

- A: Dielectric leakage
- (B): Inductance
- C: Skin effect
- D: Shunt capacitance

### E5D06

What parasitic characteristic creates an inductor’s self-resonance?

- A: Dielectric loss
- (B): Inter-turn capacitance
- C: Skin effect
- D: Coupling

### E5D07

What combines to create the self-resonance of a component?

- A: The component’s electrical length and impedance
- (B): The component’s nominal and parasitic reactance
- C: The component’s resistance and reactance
- D: The component’s inductance and capacitance

### E5D08

What is the primary cause of loss in film capacitors at RF?

- (A): Skin effect
- B: Dielectric loss
- C: Inductance
- D: Self-discharge

### E5D09

What happens to reactive power in ideal inductors and capacitors?

- A: It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive fields
- (B): Energy is stored in magnetic or electric fields, but power is not dissipated
- C: It is dissipated as heat in the circuit
- D: It is canceled by Coulomb forces in the capacitor and inductor

### E5D10

As a conductor’s diameter increases, what is the effect on its electrical length?

- A: It decreases
- (B): It increases
- C: Thickness has no effect on electrical length
- D: It varies randomly

### E5D11

How much real power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100-ohm resistor in series with a 100-ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?

- (A): 100 watts
- B: 70.7 watts
- C: 141.4 watts
- D: 200 watts

### E5D12

What is reactive power?

- (A): Wattless, nonproductive power
- B: The power consumed in inductors and capacitors
- C: Power consumed by an inductor’s wire resistance
- D: Power consumed in circuit Q

## Subelement E6

### E6A01

In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material?

- (A): In microwave circuits
- B: In high-power audio circuits
- C: In high-current rectifier circuits
- D: In very low-frequency RF circuits

### E6A02

Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons?

- A: Bipolar
- B: P-type
- C: Insulated gate
- (D): N-type

### E6A03

Why does a PN-junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased?

- A: Only P-type semiconductor material can conduct current
- B: Only N-type semiconductor material can conduct current
- C: Excess holes in P-type material combine with the electrons in N-type material, converting the entire diode into an insulator
- (D): Holes in P-type material and electrons in the N-type material are separated by the applied voltage, widening the depletion region

### E6A04

What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?

- A: Donor impurity
- (B): Acceptor impurity
- C: Insulator impurity
- D: N-type impurity

### E6A05

How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor (FET) compare with that of a bipolar transistor?

- A: An FET has lower input impedance
- B: They are both high impedance
- C: They are both low impedance
- (D): An FET has higher input impedance

### E6A06

What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?

- A: The switching speed
- B: The frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 0.707
- C: The breakdown voltage of the base-to-collector junction
- (D): The change in collector current with respect to base current

### E6A07

Which of the following indicates that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on?

- A: Base-to-emitter voltage of approximately 6 volts to 7 volts
- B: Base-to-emitter resistance of approximately 0.6 ohms to 0.7 ohms
- C: Base-to-emitter resistance of approximately 6 ohms to 7 ohms
- (D): Base-to-emitter voltage of approximately 0.6 volts to 0.7 volts

### E6A08

What is the term for the frequency at which the grounded-base current gain of a bipolar junction transistor has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?

- A: Beta cutoff frequency
- B: Corner frequency
- C: Alpha rejection frequency
- (D): Alpha cutoff frequency

### E6A09

What is a depletion-mode field-effect transistor (FET)?

- A: An FET that exhibits very high electron mobility due to a lack of holes in the N-type material
- B: An FET for which holes are the majority carriers
- (C): An FET that exhibits a current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
- D: An FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied

### E6A10

In Figure E6-1, which is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?

- A: 6
- B: 5
- (C): 4
- D: 2

### E6A11

In Figure E6-1, which is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?

- A: 6
- (B): 1
- C: 2
- D: 3

### E6A12

What is the purpose of connecting Zener diodes between a MOSFET gate and its source or drain?

- A: To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating
- B: To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage
- (C): To protect the gate from static damage
- D: To protect the substrate from excessive voltages

### E6B01

What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?

- (A): A constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current
- B: An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage
- C: A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage
- D: A negative resistance region

### E6B02

Which characteristic of a Schottky diode makes it a better choice than a silicon junction diode for use as a power supply rectifier?

- A: More constant reverse avalanche voltage
- B: Much higher reverse voltage breakdown
- C: Longer carrier retention time
- (D): Lower forward voltage drop

### E6B03

What property of an LED's semiconductor material determines its forward voltage drop?

- A: Junction capacitance
- B: Intrinsic resistance
- (C): Band gap
- D: Junction depth

### E6B04

What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-controlled capacitor?

- A: Tunnel diode
- B: Zener diode
- (C): Varactor diode
- D: Silicon-controlled rectifier

### E6B05

What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch?

- (A): Low junction capacitance
- B: Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
- C: Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage
- D: Ability to dissipate large amounts of power

### E6B06

Which of the following is a common use of a Schottky diode?

- A: In power supplies as a constant voltage reference
- (B): As a VHF/UHF mixer or detector
- C: As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
- D: In oscillator circuits as the negative resistance element

### E6B07

What causes a junction diode to fail from excessive current?

- A: Charge carrier depletion
- B: Insufficient forward voltage
- (C): Excessive junction temperature
- D: Excessive inverse voltage

### E6B08

Which of the following is a Schottky barrier diode?

- (A): Metal-semiconductor junction
- B: PIN junction
- C: Electrolytic rectifier
- D: Thermionic emission diode

### E6B09

What is a common use for point-contact diodes?

- (A): As an RF detector
- B: As a constant voltage source
- C: As a constant current source
- D: As a high-voltage rectifier

### E6B10

In Figure E6-2, which is the schematic symbol for a Schottky diode?

- A: 1
- (B): 6
- C: 2
- D: 3

### E6B11

What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?

- A: A variable RF reference voltage
- B: Reverse voltage larger than the RF signal
- (C): Forward DC bias current
- D: Capacitance of an RF coupling capacitor

### E6C01

What is the function of hysteresis in a comparator?

- (A): To prevent input noise from causing unstable output signals
- B: To allow the comparator to be used with AC input signals
- C: To increase the sensitivity
- D: To cause the output to continually change states

### E6C02

What happens when the level of a comparator’s input signal crosses the threshold voltage?

- A: The IC input can be damaged
- B: The reference level appears at the output
- (C): The comparator changes its output state
- D: The feedback loop becomes unstable

### E6C03

What is tri-state logic?

- A: A counter with eight states
- B: Logic devices that utilize ternary math
- (C): Logic devices with 0, 1, and high-impedance output states
- D: Logic with three output impedances which can be selected to better match the load impedance

### E6C04

Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?

- A: Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS
- B: All these choices are correct
- (C): It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors
- D: It is immune to electrostatic damage

### E6C05

Which of the following digital logic families has the lowest power consumption?

- (A): CMOS
- B: Schottky TTL
- C: NMOS
- D: ECL

### E6C06

Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?

- A: Bandwidth is very limited
- B: The input switching threshold is about twice the power supply voltage
- (C): The input switching threshold is about half the power supply voltage
- D: Large bypass capacitance is inherent

### E6C07

What best describes a pull-up or pull-down resistor?

- A: A resistor that ensures that an oscillator frequency does not drift
- B: A resistor connected to an op-amp output that prevents signals from exceeding the power supply voltage
- C: A resistor in a keying circuit used to reduce key clicks
- (D): A resistor connected to the positive or negative supply used to establish a voltage when an input or output is an open circuit

### E6C08

In Figure E6-3, which is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?

- (A): 2
- B: 4
- C: 1
- D: 3

### E6C09

What is used to design the configuration of a field-programmable gate array (FPGA)?

- A: Machine and assembly language
- (B): Hardware description language (HDL)
- C: An auto-router
- D: Karnaugh maps

### E6C10

In Figure E6-3, which is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?

- A: 2
- B: 3
- (C): 4
- D: 1

### E6C11

In Figure E6-3, which is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inversion)?

- (A): 5
- B: 2
- C: 6
- D: 4

### E6D01

What is piezoelectricity?

- A: The ability of materials to generate electromagnetic waves of a certain frequency when voltage is applied
- B: A characteristic of materials that have an index of refraction which depends on the polarization of the electromagnetic wave passing through it
- (C): A characteristic of materials that generate a voltage when stressed and that flex when a voltage is applied
- D: The ability of materials to generate voltage when an electromagnetic wave of a certain frequency is applied

### E6D02

What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal?

- A: Series RLC, where C is the parallel combination of resonance capacitance of the crystal and electrode and stray capacitance
- (B): Series RLC in parallel with a shunt C representing electrode and stray capacitance
- C: Parallel RLC, where C is the series combination of resonance capacitance of the crystal and electrode and stray capacitance
- D: Parallel RLC, where C is the parallel combination of resonance capacitance of the crystal and electrode and stray capacitance

### E6D03

Which of the following is an aspect of the piezoelectric effect?

- A: Increased conductivity in the presence of light
- B: Generation of electrical energy in the presence of light
- C: Mechanical deformation of material due to the application of a magnetic field
- (D): Mechanical deformation of material due to the application of a voltage

### E6D04

Why are cores of inductors and transformers sometimes constructed of thin layers?

- (A): To reduce power loss from eddy currents in the core
- B: To simplify assembly during manufacturing
- C: To increase the cutoff frequency by reducing capacitance
- D: To save cost by reducing the amount of magnetic material

### E6D05

How do ferrite and powdered iron compare for use in an inductor core?

- A: Ferrite cores are easier to use with surface-mount technology
- B: Ferrite cores generally have lower initial permeability
- C: Ferrite cores generally have better temperature stability
- (D): Ferrite cores generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value

### E6D06

What core material property determines the inductance of an inductor?

- A: Resistance
- (B): Permeability
- C: Reactivity
- D: Permittivity

### E6D07

What is the current that flows in the primary winding of a transformer when there is no load on the secondary winding?

- A: Direct current
- B: Stabilizing current
- (C): Magnetizing current
- D: Excitation current

### E6D08

Which of the following materials has the highest temperature stability of its magnetic characteristics?

- A: Brass
- B: Aluminum
- (C): Powdered iron
- D: Ferrite

### E6D09

What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of a transistor HF amplifier?

- A: Electrolytic capacitors
- (B): Ferrite beads
- C: Butterworth filters
- D: Steel-core toroids

### E6D10

What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?

- A: Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components
- B: Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis
- C: Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics
- (D): Toroidal cores confine most of the magnetic field within the core material

### E6D11

Which type of core material decreases inductance when inserted into a coil?

- (A): Brass
- B: Ceramic
- C: Aluminum
- D: Ferrite

### E6D12

What causes inductor saturation?

- A: Selecting a core with excessive permittivity
- B: Selecting a core with low permeability
- (C): Operation at excessive magnetic flux
- D: Operation at too high a frequency

### E6E01

Why is gallium arsenide (GaAs) useful for semiconductor devices operating at UHF and higher frequencies?

- A: Higher noise figures
- B: Lower transconductance
- C: Lower junction voltage drop
- (D): Higher electron mobility

### E6E02

Which of the following device packages is a through-hole type?

- A: PLCC
- (B): DIP
- C: BGA
- D: SOT

### E6E03

Which of the following materials supports the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

- (A): Gallium nitride
- B: Silicon
- C: Silicon nitride
- D: Silicon dioxide

### E6E04

Which is the most common input and output impedance of MMICs?

- (A): 50 ohms
- B: 300 ohms
- C: 450 ohms
- D: 75 ohms

### E6E05

Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?

- (A): 0.5 dB
- B: -10 dB
- C: -20 dBm
- D: 44 dBm

### E6E06

What characteristics of MMICs make them a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

- (A): Controlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output impedance over the specified frequency range
- B: Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance
- C: Extremely high Q factor and high stability over a wide temperature range
- D: The ability to retrieve information from a single signal, even in the presence of other strong signals

### E6E07

What type of transmission line is often used for connections to MMICs?

- A: Parallel wire
- B: Circular waveguide
- (C): Microstrip
- D: Miniature coax

### E6E08

How is power supplied to the most common type of MMIC?

- A: MMICs require no operating bias
- B: Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
- C: Directly to the bias voltage (Vcc) lead
- (D): Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead

### E6E09

Which of the following component package types have the least parasitic effects at frequencies above the HF range?

- A: TO-220
- (B): Surface mount
- C: Axial lead
- D: Radial lead

### E6E10

What advantage does surface-mount technology offer at RF compared to using through-hole components?

- A: Components have less parasitic inductance and capacitance
- B: Smaller circuit area
- (C): All these choices are correct
- D: Shorter circuit board traces

### E6E11

What is a characteristic of DIP packaging used for integrated circuits?

- A: Extremely low stray capacitance (dielectrically isolated package)
- B: Extremely high resistance between pins (doubly insulated package)
- C: Two chips in each package (dual in package)
- (D): Two rows of connecting pins on opposite sides of package (dual in-line package)

### E6E12

Why are DIP through-hole package ICs not typically used at UHF and higher frequencies?

- A: Unsuitable for combining analog and digital signals
- B: Epoxy coating is conductive above 300 MHz
- C: Excessive dielectric loss
- (D): Excessive lead length

### E6F01

What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?

- A: Photons
- B: Holes
- C: Protons
- (D): Electrons

### E6F02

What happens to photoconductive material when light shines on it?

- (A): Resistance decreases
- B: Reflectivity decreases
- C: Reflectivity increases
- D: Resistance increases

### E6F03

What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

- A: A lens and a photomultiplier
- B: An amplitude-modulated helium-neon laser
- C: A frequency-modulated helium-neon laser
- (D): An LED and a phototransistor

### E6F04

What is the photovoltaic effect?

- A: The effect that causes a phototransistor’s beta to decrease when exposed to light
- B: The effect that causes a photodiode to emit light when a voltage is applied
- C: The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
- (D): The conversion of light to electrical energy

### E6F05

Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder?

- A: A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source
- B: A device that measures the strength of a beam of light using analog-to-digital conversion
- C: An optical computing device in which light is coupled between devices by fiber optics
- (D): A device that detects rotation by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel

### E6F06

Which of these materials is most commonly used to create photoconductive devices?

- A: All these choices are correct
- B: Argon
- (C): Crystalline semiconductor
- D: Polyphenol acetate

### E6F07

What is a solid-state relay?

- (A): A device that uses semiconductors to implement the functions of an electromechanical relay
- B: A mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time it is pulsed
- C: A semiconductor switch that uses a monostable multivibrator circuit
- D: A relay that uses transistors to drive the relay coil

### E6F08

Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid-state circuits that control 120 VAC circuits?

- A: Optoisolators provide impedance matching between the control circuit and power circuit
- B: Optoisolators provide a low-impedance link between a control circuit and a power circuit
- (C): Optoisolators provide an electrical isolation between a control circuit and the circuit being switched
- D: Optoisolators eliminate the effects of reflected light in the control circuit

### E6F09

What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?

- A: The output in lumens divided by the input power in watts
- B: The output RF power divided by the input DC power
- C: The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination
- (D): The relative fraction of light that is converted to current

### E6F10

What is the most common material used in power-generating photovoltaic cells?

- A: Indium arsenide
- B: Cadmium sulfide
- (C): Silicon
- D: Selenium

### E6F11

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

- (A): 0.5 volts
- B: 1.1 volts
- C: 1.5 volts
- D: 0.7 volts

## Subelement E7

### E7A01

Which circuit is bistable?

- A: A bipolar amplifier
- B: An AND gate
- C: An OR gate
- (D): A flip-flop

### E7A02

What is the function of a decade counter?

- A: It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display
- B: It produces 10 output pulses for every input pulse
- C: It decodes a binary number for display on a seven-segment LED display
- (D): It produces one output pulse for every 10 input pulses

### E7A03

Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?

- A: An XOR gate
- B: An OR gate
- C: A multiplexer
- (D): A flip-flop

### E7A04

How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 16?

- (A): 4
- B: 8
- C: 6
- D: 16

### E7A05

Which of the following circuits continuously alternates between two states without an external clock signal?

- (A): Astable multivibrator
- B: Monostable multivibrator
- C: J-K flip-flop
- D: T flip-flop

### E7A06

What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?

- (A): It switches temporarily to an alternate state for a set time
- B: It stores one bit of data
- C: It produces a continuous square wave
- D: It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage

### E7A07

What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?

- A: It produces a 1 at its output only if all inputs are 1
- (B): It produces a 0 at its output only if all inputs are 1
- C: It produces a 0 at its output if some but not all inputs are 1
- D: It produces a 0 at its output only if all inputs are 0

### E7A08

What logical operation does an OR gate perform?

- A: It produces a 0 at its output if some but not all inputs are 1
- B: It produces a 1 at its output if all inputs are 0
- C: It produces a 0 at its output if all inputs are 1
- (D): It produces a 1 at its output if any input is 1

### E7A09

What logical operation is performed by a two-input exclusive NOR gate?

- A: It produces a 1 at its output if one and only one input is 1
- (B): It produces a 0 at its output if one and only one of its inputs is 1
- C: It produces a 0 at its output only if all inputs are 0
- D: It produces a 1 at its output only if all inputs are 1

### E7A10

What is a truth table?

- (A): A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device
- B: A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for an op-amp
- C: A table of logic symbols that indicate the logic states of an op-amp
- D: A diagram showing logic states when the digital gate output is true

### E7A11

What does “positive logic” mean in reference to logic devices?

- A: 1s and 0s are defined as different positive voltage levels
- B: The logic devices have high noise immunity
- C: The logic circuit is in the “true” condition
- (D): High voltage represents a 1, low voltage a 0

### E7B01

For what portion of the signal cycle does each active element in a push-pull, Class AB amplifier conduct?

- A: The entire cycle
- (B): More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees
- C: Less than 180 degrees
- D: Exactly 180 degrees

### E7B02

What is a Class D amplifier?

- A: An amplifier biased to be relatively free from distortion
- (B): An amplifier that uses switching technology to achieve high efficiency
- C: A low power amplifier that uses a differential amplifier for improved linearity
- D: An amplifier that uses drift-mode FETs for high efficiency

### E7B03

What circuit is required at the output of an RF switching amplifier?

- A: A high-pass filter to compensate for low gain at low frequencies
- (B): A filter to remove harmonic content
- C: A temperature compensating load resistor to improve linearity
- D: A matched load resistor to prevent damage by switching transients

### E7B04

What is the operating point of a Class A common emitter amplifier?

- A: At a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current curve
- B: Approximately halfway between the emitter voltage and the base voltage
- (C): Approximately halfway between saturation and cutoff
- D: At a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor

### E7B05

What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?

- A: Tune the stage for minimum loading
- (B): Install parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage
- C: Tune both the input and output for maximum power
- D: Use a phase inverter in the output filter

### E7B06

What is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier?

- A: Low bandwidth
- B: High electrostatic damage protection
- (C): Low input impedance
- D: High power gain

### E7B07

Which of the following is the likely result of using a Class C amplifier to amplify a single-sideband phone signal?

- A: Increased overall intelligibility
- (B): Signal distortion and excessive bandwidth
- C: Reduced intermodulation products
- D: Reduced third-order intermodulation

### E7B08

Why are switching amplifiers more efficient than linear amplifiers?

- A: Linear amplifiers have high gain resulting in higher harmonic content
- B: Switching amplifiers use push-pull circuits
- C: Switching amplifiers operate at higher voltages
- (D): The switching device is at saturation or cutoff most of the time

### E7B09

What is characteristic of an emitter follower (or common collector) amplifier?

- A: Low input impedance and phase inversion from input to output
- B: Differential inputs and single output
- (C): Input and output signals in-phase
- D: Acts as an OR circuit if one input is grounded

### E7B10

In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?

- A: Self bias
- B: Load resistors
- (C): Voltage divider bias
- D: Feedback

### E7B11

In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?

- A: Emitter bypass
- (B): Self bias
- C: Fixed bias
- D: Output load resistor

### E7B12

What type of amplifier circuit is shown in Figure E7-1?

- A: Emitter follower
- B: Common base
- (C): Common emitter
- D: Common collector

### E7C01

How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter Pi-network arranged between the network’s input and output?

- (A): A capacitor is connected between the input and ground, another capacitor is connected between the output and ground, and an inductor is connected between the input and output
- B: An inductor is connected between the input and ground, another inductor is connected between the output and ground, and a capacitor is connected between the input and output
- C: Two inductors are in series between the input and output, and a capacitor is connected between the two inductors and ground
- D: Two capacitors are in series between the input and output, and an inductor is connected between the two capacitors and ground

### E7C02

What is the frequency response of a T-network with series capacitors and a shunt inductor?

- A: Low-pass
- (B): High-pass
- C: Band-pass
- D: Notch

### E7C03

What is the purpose of adding an inductor to a Pi-network to create a Pi-L-network?

- (A): Greater harmonic suppression
- B: To eliminate one capacitor
- C: Higher efficiency
- D: Greater transformation range

### E7C04

How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

- A: It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance
- B: It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance
- (C): It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to the desired value
- D: Reactive currents are dissipated in matched resistances

### E7C05

Which filter type has ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?

- (A): A Chebyshev filter
- B: A Butterworth filter
- C: A passive op-amp filter
- D: An active LC filter

### E7C06

What are the characteristics of an elliptical filter?

- A: Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop-band corners
- (B): Extremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band
- C: Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop-band ripple
- D: Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop-band ripple

### E7C07

Which describes a Pi-L network?

- A: A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground
- (B): A Pi-network with an additional output series inductor
- C: A Phase Inverter Load network
- D: A network with only three discrete parts

### E7C08

Which of the following is most frequently used as a band-pass or notch filter in VHF and UHF transceivers?

- A: A Sallen-Key filter
- (B): A helical filter
- C: A swinging choke filter
- D: A finite impulse response filter

### E7C09

What is a crystal lattice filter?

- A: A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals
- (B): A filter for low-level signals made using quartz crystals
- C: An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1 kHz intervals
- D: A filter using lattice-shaped quartz crystals for high-Q performance

### E7C10

Which of the following filters is used in a 2-meter band repeater duplexer?

- A: A crystal filter
- B: A DSP filter
- C: An L-C filter
- (D): A cavity filter

### E7C11

Which of the following measures a filter’s ability to reject signals in adjacent channels?

- A: Phase response
- (B): Shape factor
- C: Passband ripple
- D: Noise factor

### E7D01

How does a linear electronic voltage regulator work?

- (A): The conduction of a control element is varied to maintain a constant output voltage
- B: The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions
- C: It has a ramp voltage as its output
- D: It eliminates the need for a pass transistor

### E7D02

How does a switchmode voltage regulator work?

- A: By alternating the output between positive and negative voltages
- B: By switching between two Zener diode reference voltages
- C: By varying the conductivity of a pass element
- (D): By varying the duty cycle of pulses input to a filter

### E7D03

What device is used as a stable voltage reference?

- A: An SCR
- (B): A Zener diode
- C: A digital-to-analog converter
- D: An analog-to-digital converter

### E7D04

Which of the following describes a three-terminal voltage regulator?

- A: A shunt current source
- B: A shunt regulator
- C: A series current source
- (D): A series regulator

### E7D05

Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator operates by loading the unregulated voltage source?

- (A): A shunt regulator
- B: A shunt current source
- C: A constant current source
- D: A series regulator

### E7D06

What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-2?

- A: It provides negative feedback to improve regulation
- B: It provides a constant load for the voltage source
- (C): It controls the current to keep the output voltage constant
- D: It provides regulation by switching or “chopping” the input DC voltage

### E7D07

What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-2?

- (A): It bypasses rectifier output ripple around D1
- B: To provide fixed DC bias for Q1
- C: It is a brute force filter for the output
- D: To prevent self-oscillation

### E7D08

What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-2?

- A: Common base amplifier
- B: Common emitter amplifier
- C: Switching voltage regulator
- (D): Linear voltage regulator

### E7D09

How is battery operating time calculated?

- (A): Capacity in amp-hours divided by average current
- B: Average current divided by internal resistance
- C: Internal resistance divided by average current
- D: Average current divided by capacity in amp-hours

### E7D10

Why is a switching type power supply less expensive and lighter than an equivalent linear power supply?

- A: It recovers power from the unused portion of the AC cycle, thus using fewer components
- B: The inverter design does not require an output filter circuit
- C: The control circuitry uses less current, therefore smaller heat sinks are required
- (D): The high frequency inverter design uses much smaller transformers and filter components for an equivalent power output

### E7D11

What is the purpose of an inverter connected to a solar panel output?

- A: Prevent discharge when panel is not illuminated
- (B): Convert the panel’s output from DC to AC
- C: Reduce AC ripple on the output
- D: Maintain voltage with varying illumination levels

### E7D12

What is the dropout voltage of a linear voltage regulator?

- (A): Minimum input-to-output voltage required to maintain regulation
- B: Maximum output voltage drop when the input voltage is varied over its specified range
- C: Maximum that the output voltage may decrease at rated load
- D: Minimum input voltage for rated power dissipation

### E7D13

Which of the following calculates power dissipated by a series linear voltage regulator?

- (A): Voltage difference from input to output multiplied by output current
- B: Output voltage multiplied by output current
- C: Input voltage divided by output current
- D: Input voltage multiplied by input current

### E7D14

What is the purpose of connecting equal-value resistors across power supply filter capacitors connected in series?

- A: Equalize the voltage across each capacitor
- B: Discharge the capacitors when voltage is removed
- (C): All these choices are correct
- D: Provide a minimum load on the supply

### E7D15

What is the purpose of a step-start circuit in a high-voltage power supply?

- A: To compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage
- B: To provide a dual-voltage output for reduced power applications
- C: To prevent arcing across the input power switch or relay contacts
- (D): To allow the filter capacitors to charge gradually

### E7E01

Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone signals?

- A: Balanced modulation of the audio amplifier
- B: Balanced modulation of a local oscillator
- (C): Reactance modulation of a local oscillator
- D: Reactance modulation of the final amplifier

### E7E02

What is the function of a reactance modulator?

- A: Produce AM signals by varying an inductance
- B: Produce AM signals by varying a resistance
- C: Produce PM or FM signals by varying a resistance
- (D): Produce PM or FM signals by varying a capacitance

### E7E03

What is a frequency discriminator?

- (A): A circuit for detecting FM signals
- B: A circuit for filtering closely adjacent signals
- C: An automatic band-switching circuit
- D: An FM generator circuit

### E7E04

What is one way to produce a single-sideband phone signal?

- A: Use a reactance modulator followed by a mixer
- B: Use a loop modulator followed by a mixer
- (C): Use a balanced modulator followed by a filter
- D: Use a product detector with a DSB signal

### E7E05

What is added to an FM speech channel to boost the higher audio frequencies?

- A: A de-emphasis network
- (B): A pre-emphasis network
- C: A harmonic enhancer
- D: A heterodyne enhancer

### E7E06

Why is de-emphasis used in FM communications receivers?

- (A): For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
- B: To reduce impulse noise reception
- C: For higher efficiency
- D: To remove third-order distortion products

### E7E07

What is meant by the term “baseband” in radio communications?

- A: The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal
- (B): The frequency range occupied by a message signal prior to modulation
- C: The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers
- D: The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency

### E7E08

What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer?

- A: The square root of the product of input frequencies
- (B): The two input frequencies along with their sum and difference frequencies
- C: Two and four times the input frequency
- D: 1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency

### E7E09

What occurs when the input signal levels to a mixer are too high?

- (A): Spurious mixer products are generated
- B: Automatic limiting occurs
- C: Excessive AGC voltage levels are generated
- D: Mixer blanking occurs

### E7E10

How does a diode envelope detector function?

- A: By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency
- B: By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode
- C: By breakdown of the Zener voltage
- (D): By rectification and filtering of RF signals

### E7E11

Which type of detector is used for demodulating SSB signals?

- A: Phase detector
- (B): Product detector
- C: Discriminator
- D: Phase comparator

### E7F01

What is meant by “direct sampling” in software defined radios?

- A: A switching mixer is used to generate I and Q signals directly from the RF input
- (B): Incoming RF is digitized by an analog-to-digital converter without being mixed with a local oscillator signal
- C: I and Q signals are generated by digital processing without the use of RF amplification
- D: Software is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver

### E7F02

What kind of digital signal processing audio filter is used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?

- A: A crystal-lattice filter
- B: A Hilbert-transform filter
- (C): An adaptive filter
- D: A phase-inverting filter

### E7F03

What type of digital signal processing filter is used to generate an SSB signal?

- (A): A Hilbert-transform filter
- B: An adaptive filter
- C: An elliptical filter
- D: A notch filter

### E7F04

Which method generates an SSB signal using digital signal processing?

- A: A frequency synthesizer removes unwanted sidebands
- B: Varying quartz crystal characteristics are emulated in digital form
- (C): Signals are combined in quadrature phase relationship
- D: Mixing products are converted to voltages and subtracted by adder circuits

### E7F05

How frequently must an analog signal be sampled to be accurately reproduced?

- A: At the same rate as the highest frequency component of the signal
- B: At four times the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
- (C): At least twice the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
- D: At least half the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal

### E7F06

What is the minimum number of bits required to sample a signal with a range of 1 volt at a resolution of 1 millivolt?

- A: 4 bits
- B: 8 bits
- C: 6 bits
- (D): 10 bits

### E7F07

What function is performed by a Fast Fourier Transform?

- (A): Converting signals from the time domain to the frequency domain
- B: Converting digital signals to analog form
- C: Converting analog signals to digital form
- D: Converting signals from the frequency domain to the time domain

### E7F08

What is the function of decimation?

- A: Attenuating the signal
- B: Converting data to binary-coded decimal form
- (C): Reducing the effective sample rate by removing samples
- D: Removing unnecessary significant digits

### E7F09

Why is an anti-aliasing filter required in a decimator?

- A: It peaks the response of the decimator, improving bandwidth
- B: It notches out the sampling frequency to avoid sampling errors
- C: It removes low-frequency signal components to eliminate the need for DC restoration
- (D): It removes high-frequency signal components that would otherwise be reproduced as lower frequency components

### E7F10

What aspect of receiver analog-to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a direct-sampling software defined radio (SDR)?

- A: Differential non-linearity
- B: Integral non-linearity
- (C): Sample rate
- D: Sample width in bits

### E7F11

What sets the minimum detectable signal level for a direct-sampling software defined receiver in the absence of atmospheric or thermal noise?

- (A): Reference voltage level and sample width in bits
- B: Sample clock phase noise
- C: Missing codes and jitter
- D: Data storage transfer rate

### E7F12

Which of the following is generally true of Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filters?

- (A): FIR filters can delay all frequency components of the signal by the same amount
- B: FIR filters are easier to implement for a given set of passband rolloff requirements
- C: All these choices are correct
- D: FIR filters can respond faster to impulses

### E7F13

What is the function of taps in a digital signal processing filter?

- A: To reduce excess signal pressure levels
- B: Select the point at which baseband signals are generated
- C: Provide access for debugging software
- (D): Provide incremental signal delays for filter algorithms

### E7F14

Which of the following would allow a digital signal processing filter to create a sharper filter response?

- A: Lower Q
- B: Higher data rate
- C: Double-precision math routines
- (D): More taps

### E7G01

What is the typical output impedance of an op-amp?

- A: Very high
- (B): Very low
- C: 100 ohms
- D: 10,000 ohms

### E7G02

What is the frequency response of the circuit in E7-3 if a capacitor is added across the feedback resistor?

- A: High-pass filter
- (B): Low-pass filter
- C: Band-pass filter
- D: Notch filter

### E7G03

What is the typical input impedance of an op-amp?

- A: 100 ohms
- B: Very low
- (C): Very high
- D: 10,000 ohms

### E7G04

What is meant by the term “op-amp input offset voltage”?

- A: The difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the input voltage required in the immediately following stage
- (B): The differential input voltage needed to bring the open loop output voltage to zero
- C: The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage
- D: The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open loop condition

### E7G05

How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in an op-amp audio filter?

- A: Restrict gain but increase Q
- (B): Restrict both gain and Q
- C: Increase both gain and Q
- D: Restrict Q but increase gain

### E7G06

What is the gain-bandwidth of an operational amplifier?

- (A): The frequency at which the open-loop gain of the amplifier equals one
- B: The maximum frequency for a filter circuit using that type of amplifier
- C: The frequency at which the amplifier’s offset voltage is zero
- D: The gain of the amplifier at a filter’s cutoff frequency

### E7G07

What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7‑3 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?

- A: 24
- B: 0.21
- C: 4700
- (D): 47

### E7G08

How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?

- A: It decreases linearly with increasing frequency
- B: It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency
- C: It increases linearly with increasing frequency
- (D): It does not vary with frequency

### E7G09

What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-3 if R1 is 1,000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts DC is applied to the input?

- A: 0.23 volts
- (B): -2.3 volts
- C: 2.3 volts
- D: -0.23 volts

### E7G10

What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 1,800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?

- A: 1
- B: 0.03
- (C): 38
- D: 76

### E7G11

What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 3,300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?

- (A): 14
- B: 28
- C: 0.07
- D: 7

### E7G12

What is an operational amplifier?

- A: An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit
- B: A digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier
- (C): A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier with very high input impedance and very low output impedance
- D: A RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave regions

### E7H01

What are three common oscillator circuits?

- (A): Colpitts, Hartley, and Pierce
- B: Taft, Hartley, and Pierce
- C: Taft, Pierce, and negative feedback
- D: Pierce, Fenner, and Beane

### E7H02

What is a microphonic?

- A: Excess loading of the microphone by an oscillator
- B: An IC used for amplifying microphone signals
- C: Distortion caused by RF pickup on the microphone cable
- (D): Changes in oscillator frequency caused by mechanical vibration

### E7H03

What is a phase-locked loop?

- A: An electronic circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator
- B: An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator
- C: An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier with a differential phase input
- (D): An electronic servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass filter, a voltage-controlled oscillator, and a stable reference oscillator

### E7H04

How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator?

- A: Through a neutralizing capacitor
- (B): Through a capacitive divider
- C: Through link coupling
- D: Through a tapped coil

### E7H05

How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator?

- A: Through a tapped coil
- B: Through link coupling
- (C): Through a quartz crystal
- D: Through a neutralizing capacitor

### E7H06

Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop?

- A: Photovoltaic conversion and optical coupling
- B: Comparison of two digital input signals and digital pulse counting
- C: Wide-band AF and RF power amplification
- (D): Frequency synthesis and FM demodulation

### E7H07

How can an oscillator’s microphonic responses be reduced?

- (A): Mechanically isolate the oscillator circuitry from its enclosure
- B: Use NP0 capacitors
- C: Increase the gain
- D: Reduce noise on the oscillator’s power supply

### E7H08

Which of the following components can be used to reduce thermal drift in crystal oscillators?

- (A): NP0 capacitors
- B: Non-inductive resistors
- C: Toroidal inductors
- D: Wirewound resistors

### E7H09

What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital-to-analog converter, and a low-pass anti-alias filter?

- A: A hybrid synthesizer
- (B): A direct digital synthesizer
- C: A phase-locked loop synthesizer
- D: A direct conversion synthesizer

### E7H10

What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

- (A): Amplitude values that represent the desired waveform
- B: The phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and the output waveform
- C: Frequently used receiver and transmitter frequencies
- D: The phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the output waveform

### E7H11

What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers?

- (A): Spurious signals at discrete frequencies
- B: Broadband noise
- C: Digital conversion noise
- D: Harmonics of the local oscillator

### E7H12

Which of the following ensures that a crystal oscillator operates on the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?

- A: Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance
- (B): Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance
- C: Bias the crystal at a specified voltage
- D: Bias the crystal at a specified current

### E7H13

Which of the following is a technique for providing highly accurate and stable oscillators needed for microwave transmission and reception?

- A: Use a GPS signal reference
- (B): All these choices are correct
- C: Use a rubidium stabilized reference oscillator
- D: Use a temperature-controlled high Q dielectric resonator

## Subelement E8

### E8A01

What technique shows that a square wave is made up of a sine wave and its odd harmonics?

- (A): Fourier analysis
- B: Vector analysis
- C: Differential analysis
- D: Numerical analysis

### E8A02

Which of the following is a type of analog-to-digital conversion?

- (A): Successive approximation
- B: Level shifting
- C: Phase reversal
- D: Harmonic regeneration

### E8A03

Which of the following describes a signal in the time domain?

- A: Discrete impulses in time order
- B: Frequency at different times
- C: Power at intervals of phase
- (D): Amplitude at different times

### E8A04

What is “dither” with respect to analog-to-digital converters?

- A: A method of decimation by randomly skipping samples
- (B): A small amount of noise added to the input signal to reduce quantization noise
- C: An abnormal condition where the converter cannot settle on a value to represent the signal
- D: An error caused by irregular quantization step size

### E8A05

What is the benefit of making voltage measurements with a true-RMS calculating meter?

- A: An inverse Fourier transform can be used
- B: The signal’s RMS noise factor is also calculated
- C: The calculated RMS value can be converted directly into phasor form
- (D): RMS is measured for both sinusoidal and non-sinusoidal signals

### E8A06

What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in an unprocessed single-sideband phone signal?

- (A): 2.5 to 1
- B: 25 to 1
- C: 1 to 1
- D: 13 to 1

### E8A07

What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of an unprocessed single-sideband phone signal?

- (A): Speech characteristics
- B: The frequency of the modulating signal
- C: The degree of carrier suppression
- D: Amplifier gain

### E8A08

Why are direct or flash conversion analog-to-digital converters used for a software defined radio?

- A: Very low power consumption decreases frequency drift
- B: All these choices are correct
- C: Immunity to out-of-sequence coding reduces spurious responses
- (D): Very high speed allows digitizing high frequencies

### E8A09

How many different input levels can be encoded by an analog-to-digital converter with 8-bit resolution?

- A: 256 divided by the gain of the input amplifier
- B: 8
- (C): 256
- D: 8 multiplied by the gain of the input amplifier

### E8A10

What is the purpose of a low-pass filter used at the output of a digital-to-analog converter?

- (A): Remove spurious sampling artifacts from the output signal
- B: All these choices are correct
- C: Lower the input bandwidth to increase the effective resolution
- D: Improve accuracy by removing out-of-sequence codes from the input

### E8A11

Which of the following is a measure of the quality of an analog-to-digital converter?

- A: Power factor
- B: Peak envelope power
- C: Reciprocal mixing
- (D): Total harmonic distortion

### E8B01

What is the modulation index of an FM signal?

- A: The bandwidth of the transmitted signal divided by the modulating signal frequency
- (B): The ratio of frequency deviation to modulating signal frequency
- C: The ratio of modulating signal amplitude to frequency deviation
- D: The modulating signal frequency divided by the bandwidth of the transmitted signal

### E8B02

How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency?

- A: It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases
- B: It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency
- C: It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
- (D): It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency

### E8B03

What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency if the highest modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?

- A: 6
- (B): 3
- C: 0.3
- D: 0.6

### E8B04

What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz if the highest modulating frequency is 2 kHz?

- A: 0.3
- B: 6
- (C): 3
- D: 0.6

### E8B05

What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 5 kHz if the highest modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

- A: 0.6
- B: 6
- (C): 1.67
- D: 0.167

### E8B06

What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz if the highest modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?

- (A): 2.14
- B: 0.47
- C: 47
- D: 0.214

### E8B07

Orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM) is a technique used for which types of amateur communication?

- (A): Digital modes
- B: Extremely low-power contacts
- C: EME
- D: OFDM signals are not allowed on amateur bands

### E8B08

What describes orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM)?

- A: A frequency modulation technique that uses non-harmonically related frequencies
- B: A digital mode for narrow-band, slow-speed transmissions
- (C): A digital modulation technique using subcarriers at frequencies chosen to avoid intersymbol interference
- D: A bandwidth compression technique using Fourier transforms

### E8B09

What is deviation ratio?

- (A): The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency
- B: The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency
- C: The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency
- D: The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency

### E8B10

What is frequency division multiplexing (FDM)?

- A: The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate
- B: The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information
- C: Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter
- (D): Dividing the transmitted signal into separate frequency bands that each carry a different data stream

### E8B11

What is digital time division multiplexing?

- A: Two or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the sub-carrier
- B: Two or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter
- (C): Two or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of a data transmission
- D: Two or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency

### E8C01

What is Quadrature Amplitude Modulation or QAM?

- A: A technique for digital data compression used in digital television which removes redundancy in the data by comparing bit amplitudes
- B: A technique for analog modulation of television video signals using phase modulation and compression
- C: A method of performing single sideband modulation by shifting the phase of the carrier and modulation components of the signal
- (D): Transmission of data by modulating the amplitude of two carriers of the same frequency but 90 degrees out of phase

### E8C02

What is the definition of symbol rate in a digital transmission?

- A: The number of characters carried per second by the station-to-station link
- B: The maximum rate at which the forward error correction code can make corrections
- (C): The rate at which the waveform changes to convey information
- D: The number of control characters in a message packet

### E8C03

Why should the phase of a PSK signal be changed at the zero crossing of the RF signal?

- (A): To minimize bandwidth
- B: To simplify modulation
- C: To improve carrier suppression
- D: All these choices are correct

### E8C04

What technique minimizes the bandwidth of a PSK31 signal?

- A: Reed-Solomon character encoding
- B: Zero-sum character encoding
- (C): Use of sinusoidal data pulses
- D: Use of linear data pulses

### E8C05

What is the approximate bandwidth of a 13-WPM International Morse Code transmission?

- A: 26 Hz
- B: 13 Hz
- (C): 52 Hz
- D: 104 Hz

### E8C06

What is the bandwidth of an FT8 signal?

- (A): 50 Hz
- B: 2.4 kHz
- C: 600 Hz
- D: 10 Hz

### E8C07

What is the bandwidth of a 4,800-Hz frequency shift, 9,600-baud ASCII FM transmission?

- A: 4.8 kHz
- B: 9.6 kHz
- C: 5.76 kHz
- (D): 15.36 kHz

### E8C08

How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

- A: Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
- B: If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
- (C): If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested
- D: Special binary codes provide automatic correction

### E8C09

Which digital code allows only one bit to change between sequential code values?

- A: Extended ASCII
- B: Binary Coded Decimal Code
- C: Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
- (D): Gray code

### E8C10

How can data rate be increased without increasing bandwidth?

- A: Using forward error correction
- B: It is impossible
- C: Increasing analog-to-digital conversion resolution
- (D): Using a more efficient digital code

### E8C11

What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud?

- A: Baud rate is half the symbol rate
- B: The relationship depends on the specific code used
- (C): They are the same
- D: Baud is twice the symbol rate

### E8C12

What factors affect the bandwidth of a transmitted CW signal?

- A: IF bandwidth and Q
- B: Modulation index and output power
- C: All these choices are correct
- (D): Keying speed and shape factor (rise and fall time)

### E8C13

What is described by the constellation diagram of a QAM or QPSK signal?

- (A): The possible phase and amplitude states for each symbol
- B: The number of bits used for error correction in the protocol
- C: Frequency response of the signal stream
- D: How many carriers may be present at the same time

### E8C14

What type of addresses do nodes have in a mesh network?

- A: Talk group
- B: Trust server
- (C): Internet Protocol (IP)
- D: Email

### E8C15

What technique do individual nodes use to form a mesh network?

- A: Forward error correction and Viterbi codes
- B: Custom code plugs for the local trunking systems
- C: Acting as store-and-forward digipeaters
- (D): Discovery and link establishment protocols

### E8D01

Why are received spread spectrum signals resistant to interference?

- A: If the receiver detects interference, it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
- (B): Signals not using the spread spectrum algorithm are suppressed in the receiver
- C: Built-in error correction codes minimize interference
- D: The high power used by a spread spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered

### E8D02

What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high-speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?

- A: Frequency hopping
- B: Phase compandored spread spectrum
- C: Binary phase-shift keying
- (D): Direct sequence

### E8D03

Which describes spread spectrum frequency hopping?

- A: RF signals are clipped to generate a wide band of harmonics which provides redundancy to correct errors
- B: If interference is detected by the receiver, it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
- C: A binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a pseudorandom sequence
- (D): Rapidly varying the frequency of a transmitted signal according to a pseudorandom sequence

### E8D04

What is the primary effect of extremely short rise or fall time on a CW signal?

- A: More difficult to tune
- (B): The generation of key clicks
- C: The generation of RF harmonics
- D: More difficult to copy

### E8D05

What is the most common method of reducing key clicks?

- A: Insert low-pass filters at the transmitter output
- B: Reduce keying waveform rise and fall times
- (C): Increase keying waveform rise and fall times
- D: Insert high-pass filters at the transmitter output

### E8D06

What is the advantage of including parity bits in ASCII characters?

- A: Signal-to-noise ratio is improved
- B: A larger character set is available
- (C): Some types of errors can be detected
- D: Faster transmission rate

### E8D07

What is a common cause of overmodulation of AFSK signals?

- A: Excessive frequency deviation
- B: Excessive numbers of retries
- (C): Excessive transmit audio levels
- D: Bit errors in the modem

### E8D08

What parameter evaluates distortion of an AFSK signal caused by excessive input audio levels?

- (A): Intermodulation Distortion (IMD)
- B: Signal-to-noise ratio
- C: Repeat Request Rate (RRR)
- D: Baud error rate

### E8D09

What is considered an acceptable maximum IMD level for an idling PSK signal?

- A: +15 dB
- B: +10 dB
- C: +5 dB
- (D): -30 dB

### E8D10

What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

- A: Baudot uses 7 data bits per character, ASCII uses 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
- B: Baudot uses 6 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
- C: Baudot uses 4 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 1 character as a letters/figures shift code, ASCII has no letters/figures code
- (D): Baudot uses 5 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 2 characters as letters/figures shift codes, ASCII has no letters/figures shift code

### E8D11

What is one advantage of using ASCII code for data communications?

- (A): It is possible to transmit both uppercase and lowercase text
- B: It uses one character as a shift code to send numeric and special characters
- C: It contains fewer information bits per character than any other code
- D: It includes built-in error correction features

## Subelement E9

### E9A01

What is an isotropic radiator?

- A: An omnidirectional, horizontally polarized, precisely calibrated antenna used to make field measurements of antenna gain
- B: A calibrated, unidirectional antenna used to make precise antenna gain measurements
- C: A spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward Earth
- (D): A hypothetical, lossless antenna having equal radiation intensity in all directions used as a reference for antenna gain

### E9A02

What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.2 dB duplexer loss, and 7 dBd antenna gain?

- A: 469 watts
- (B): 286 watts
- C: 420 watts
- D: 78.7 watts

### E9A03

What term describing total radiated power takes into account all gains and losses?

- A: Power factor
- (B): Effective radiated power
- C: Apparent power
- D: Half-power bandwidth

### E9A04

Which of the following factors affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?

- A: Transmission line length
- B: The input power level
- C: The settings of an antenna tuner at the transmitter
- (D): Antenna height

### E9A05

What does the term “ground gain” mean?

- A: To force net gain to 0 dB by grounding part of the antenna
- B: The change in signal strength caused by grounding the antenna
- C: The gain of the antenna with respect to a dipole at ground level
- (D): An increase in signal strength from ground reflections in the environment of the antenna

### E9A06

What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line loss, 3.2 dB duplexer loss, 0.8 dB circulator loss, and 10 dBd antenna gain?

- A: 2,000 watts
- B: 300 watts
- C: 126 watts
- (D): 317 watts

### E9A07

What is the effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.8 dB duplexer loss, 1.2 dB circulator loss, and 7 dBi antenna gain?

- A: 63.2 watts
- (B): 252 watts
- C: 159 watts
- D: 632 watts

### E9A08

Which frequency band has the smallest first Fresnel zone?

- A: 900 MHz
- (B): 5.8 GHz
- C: 2.4 GHz
- D: 3.4 GHz

### E9A09

What is antenna efficiency?

- A: Radiation resistance divided by transmission resistance
- B: Total resistance divided by radiation resistance
- C: Effective radiated power divided by transmitter output
- (D): Radiation resistance divided by total resistance

### E9A10

Which of the following improves the efficiency of a ground-mounted quarter-wave vertical antenna?

- A: Shortening the radiating element
- B: Isolating the coax shield from ground
- C: All these choices are correct
- (D): Installing a ground radial system

### E9A11

Which of the following determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating on HF?

- (A): Soil conductivity
- B: Distance from the transmitter
- C: Take-off angle
- D: The standing wave ratio

### E9A12

How much gain does an antenna have compared to a half-wavelength dipole if it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic radiator?

- A: 6.0 dB
- (B): 3.85 dB
- C: 8.15 dB
- D: 2.79 dB

### E9B01

What is the 3 dB beamwidth of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1?

- A: 75 degrees
- (B): 50 degrees
- C: 30 degrees
- D: 25 degrees

### E9B02

What is the front-to-back ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1?

- (A): 18 dB
- B: 24 dB
- C: 36 dB
- D: 14 dB

### E9B03

What is the front-to-side ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1?

- A: 12 dB
- B: 18 dB
- C: 24 dB
- (D): 14 dB

### E9B04

What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9‑2?

- (A): 28 dB
- B: 38 dB
- C: 3 dB
- D: 15 dB

### E9B05

What type of antenna pattern is shown in Figure E9-2?

- (A): Elevation
- B: Azimuth
- C: Polarization
- D: Near field

### E9B06

What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

- A: 75 degrees
- (B): 7.5 degrees
- C: 45 degrees
- D: 25 degrees

### E9B07

What is the difference in radiated power between a lossless antenna with gain and an isotropic radiator driven by the same power?

- A: The power radiated from the isotropic radiator is 2.15 dB greater than that from the directional antenna
- B: The power radiated from the directional antenna is stronger by its front-to-back ratio
- (C): They are the same
- D: The power radiated from the directional antenna is increased by the gain of the antenna

### E9B08

What is the far field of an antenna?

- (A): The region where the shape of the radiation pattern no longer varies with distance
- B: The region of the ionosphere where radiated power is not refracted
- C: The region where radiated field strengths are constant
- D: The region where radiated power dissipates over a specified time period

### E9B09

What type of analysis is commonly used for modeling antennas?

- A: Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties
- (B): Method of Moments
- C: Graphical analysis
- D: Mutual impedance analysis

### E9B10

What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis?

- A: A wire is modeled as a single sine-wave voltage source
- B: A wire is modeled as a single sine-wave current generator
- C: A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct value of voltage across it
- (D): A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a uniform value of current

### E9B11

What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below 10 segments per half-wavelength?

- (A): The computed feed point impedance may be incorrect
- B: The antenna will become mechanically unstable
- C: The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy
- D: Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled

### E9C01

What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

- A: Cardioid
- (B): A figure-eight oriented along the axis of the array
- C: A figure-eight broadside to the axis of the array
- D: Omni-directional

### E9C02

What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?

- A: Omni-directional
- (B): Cardioid
- C: A figure-eight end-fire along the axis of the array
- D: A figure-eight broadside to the axis of the array

### E9C03

What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase?

- (A): A figure-eight broadside to the axis of the array
- B: Omni-directional
- C: A figure-eight end-fire along the axis of the array
- D: Cardioid

### E9C04

What happens to the radiation pattern of an unterminated long wire antenna as the wire length is increased?

- (A): Additional lobes form with major lobes increasingly aligned with the axis of the antenna
- B: The elevation angle increases, while the front-to-rear ratio is unaffected
- C: The elevation angle increases, and the front-to-rear ratio decreases
- D: Fewer lobes form with the major lobes increasing closer to broadside to the wire

### E9C05

What is the purpose of feeding an off-center-fed dipole (OCFD) between the center and one end instead of at the midpoint?

- A: To reduce common-mode current coupling on the feed line shield
- (B): To create a similar feed point impedance on multiple bands
- C: To resonate the antenna across a wider range of frequencies
- D: To suppress off-center lobes at higher frequencies

### E9C06

What is the effect of adding a terminating resistor to a rhombic or long-wire antenna?

- A: It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical polarization
- (B): It changes the radiation pattern from bidirectional to unidirectional
- C: It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the transmitter
- D: It decreases the ground loss

### E9C07

What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire half-wave folded dipole antenna?

- A: 72 ohms
- B: 450 ohms
- C: 50 ohms
- (D): 300 ohms

### E9C08

What is a folded dipole antenna?

- A: A center-fed dipole with the ends folded down 90 degrees at the midpoint of each side
- B: A dipole configured to provide forward gain
- C: A dipole one-quarter wavelength long
- (D): A half-wave dipole with an additional parallel wire connecting its two ends

### E9C09

Which of the following describes a G5RV antenna?

- A: A wide band dipole using shorted coaxial cable for the radiating elements and fed with a 4:1 balun
- (B): A wire antenna center-fed through a specific length of open-wire line connected to a balun and coaxial feed line
- C: A phased array antenna consisting of multiple loops
- D: A multi-band trap antenna

### E9C10

Which of the following describes a Zepp antenna?

- (A): An end-fed half-wavelength dipole
- B: A horizontal array capable of quickly changing the direction of maximum radiation by changing phasing lines
- C: A vertical array capable of quickly changing the direction of maximum radiation by changing phasing lines
- D: An omni-directional antenna commonly used for satellite communications

### E9C11

How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus soil?

- (A): Radiation at low angles increases
- B: Additional lobes appear at higher elevation angles
- C: Radiation at low angles decreases
- D: Separate elevation lobes will combine into a single lobe

### E9C12

Which of the following describes an extended double Zepp antenna?

- (A): A center-fed 1.25-wavelength dipole antenna
- B: A center-fed 1.5-wavelength dipole antenna
- C: An end-fed 2-wavelength dipole antenna
- D: An end-fed full-wave dipole antenna

### E9C13

How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized antenna vary with increasing height above ground?

- A: The horizontal beamwidth decreases
- B: The horizontal beamwidth increases
- (C): The takeoff angle of the lowest elevation lobe decreases
- D: The takeoff angle of the lowest elevation lobe increases

### E9C14

How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally-polarized antenna mounted above a long slope compare with the same antenna mounted above flat ground?

- A: The horizontal beamwidth decreases in the downhill direction
- B: The horizontal beamwidth increases in the uphill direction
- C: The main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction
- (D): The main lobe takeoff angle decreases in the downhill direction

### E9D01

How much does the gain of an ideal parabolic reflector antenna increase when the operating frequency is doubled?

- A: 3 dB
- B: 4 dB
- C: 2 dB
- (D): 6 dB

### E9D02

How can two linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization?

- A: Stack two Yagis to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes fed 90 degrees out of phase
- (B): Arrange two Yagis on the same axis and perpendicular to each other with the driven elements at the same point on the boom and fed 90 degrees out of phase
- C: Arrange two Yagis collinear to each other with the driven elements fed 180 degrees out of phase
- D: Stack two Yagis to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes fed in phase

### E9D03

What is the most efficient location for a loading coil on an electrically short whip?

- A: At a voltage null
- (B): Near the center of the vertical radiator
- C: At a voltage maximum
- D: As low as possible on the vertical radiator

### E9D04

Why should antenna loading coils have a high ratio of reactance to resistance?

- A: To swamp out harmonics
- B: To lower the radiation angle
- (C): To maximize efficiency
- D: To minimize the Q

### E9D05

Approximately how long is a Yagi’s driven element?

- A: 1005 divided by frequency in MHz
- B: 1/4 wavelength
- C: 234 divided by frequency in MHz
- (D): 1/2 wavelength

### E9D06

What happens to SWR bandwidth when one or more loading coils are used to resonate an electrically short antenna?

- A: It is increased
- B: It is unchanged if the loading coil is located at the feed point
- (C): It is decreased
- D: It is unchanged if the loading coil is located at a voltage maximum point

### E9D07

What is an advantage of top loading an electrically short HF vertical antenna?

- (A): Improved radiation efficiency
- B: Lower Q
- C: Greater structural strength
- D: Higher losses

### E9D08

What happens as the Q of an antenna increases?

- A: SWR bandwidth increases
- B: More common-mode current is present on the feed line
- (C): SWR bandwidth decreases
- D: Gain is reduced

### E9D09

What is the function of a loading coil in an electrically short antenna?

- A: To lower the losses
- B: To lower the Q
- (C): To resonate the antenna by cancelling the capacitive reactance
- D: To increase the SWR bandwidth by increasing net reactance

### E9D10

How does radiation resistance of a base-fed whip antenna change below its resonant frequency?

- A: Radiation resistance does not depend on frequency
- B: Radiation resistance becomes imaginary
- (C): Radiation resistance decreases
- D: Radiation resistance increases

### E9D11

Why do most two-element Yagis with normal spacing have a reflector instead of a director?

- A: Lower SWR
- (B): Higher gain
- C: Greater front-to-side
- D: Higher receiving directivity factor

### E9D12

What is the purpose of making a Yagi’s parasitic elements either longer or shorter than resonance?

- (A): Control of phase shift
- B: Mechanical balance
- C: Minimize losses
- D: Wind torque cancellation

### E9E01

Which matching system for Yagi antennas requires the driven element to be insulated from the boom?

- A: Gamma
- B: Shunt-fed
- C: T-match
- (D): Beta or hairpin

### E9E02

What antenna matching system matches coaxial cable to an antenna by connecting the shield to the center of the antenna and the conductor a fraction of a wavelength to one side?

- A: T-match
- B: Delta match
- (C): Gamma match
- D: Stub match

### E9E03

What matching system uses a short length of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the feed point?

- A: Gamma match
- B: Delta match
- (C): Stub match
- D: T-match

### E9E04

What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma match?

- (A): To cancel unwanted inductive reactance
- B: To provide DC isolation between the feed line and the antenna
- C: To provide a rejection notch that prevents the radiation of harmonics
- D: To transform the antenna impedance to a higher value

### E9E05

What Yagi driven element feed point impedance is required to use a beta or hairpin matching system?

- A: Inductive (driven element electrically longer than 1/2 wavelength)
- (B): Capacitive (driven element electrically shorter than 1/2 wavelength)
- C: Purely resistive
- D: Purely reactive

### E9E06

Which of these transmission line impedances would be suitable for constructing a quarter-wave Q-section for matching a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm transmission line?

- A: 90 ohms
- B: 62 ohms
- C: 50 ohms
- (D): 75 ohms

### E9E07

What parameter describes the interaction of a load and transmission line?

- A: Velocity factor
- B: Dielectric constant
- C: Characteristic impedance
- (D): Reflection coefficient

### E9E08

What is a use for a Wilkinson divider?

- (A): To divide power equally between two 50-ohm loads while maintaining 50-ohm input impedance
- B: To feed high-impedance antennas from a low-impedance source
- C: To divide the frequency of the input to a counter to increase its frequency range
- D: To divide the operating frequency of a transmitter signal so it can be used on a lower frequency band

### E9E09

Which of the following is used to shunt feed a grounded tower at its base?

- (A): Gamma match
- B: All these choices are correct
- C: Double-bazooka match
- D: Beta or hairpin match

### E9E10

Which matching system places an inductance across the feed point of a vertical monopole antenna?

- A: Gamma
- B: Shunt-fed
- (C): Beta or hairpin
- D: T-match

### E9E11

What is the purpose of using multiple driven elements connected through phasing lines?

- (A): To control the antenna’s radiation pattern
- B: To create a low-angle radiation pattern
- C: To prevent harmonic radiation from the transmitter
- D: To allow single-band antennas to operate on other bands

### E9F01

What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?

- A: The velocity of a wave in the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum
- (B): The velocity of a wave in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum
- C: The ratio of its termination impedance to its characteristic impedance
- D: The ratio of its characteristic impedance to its termination impedance

### E9F02

Which of the following has the biggest effect on the velocity factor of a transmission line?

- A: The transmission line length
- (B): The insulating dielectric material
- C: The characteristic impedance
- D: The center conductor resistivity

### E9F03

Why is the electrical length of a coaxial cable longer than its physical length?

- A: Skin effect is more pronounced in the coaxial cable
- B: Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable
- (C): Electromagnetic waves move more slowly in a coaxial cable than in air
- D: Electromagnetic waves move faster in coaxial cable than in air

### E9F04

What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

- A: The same as the output impedance of the RF generator
- (B): Very low impedance
- C: Very high impedance
- D: The same as the characteristic impedance of the line

### E9F05

What is microstrip?

- A: Short lengths of coax mounted on printed circuit boards to minimize time delay between microwave circuits
- B: Miniature coax used for low power applications
- (C): Precision printed circuit conductors above a ground plane that provide constant impedance interconnects at microwave frequencies
- D: Special shielding material designed for microwave frequencies

### E9F06

What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically 1/2 wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

- A: 7.0 meters
- B: 13.3 meters
- C: 8.5 meters
- (D): 10.6 meters

### E9F07

How does parallel conductor transmission line compare to coaxial cable with a plastic dielectric?

- (A): Lower loss
- B: Smaller reflection coefficient
- C: Higher SWR
- D: Lower velocity factor

### E9F08

Which of the following is a significant difference between foam dielectric coaxial cable and solid dielectric coaxial cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?

- (A): All these choices are correct
- B: Foam dielectric coaxial cable has higher velocity factor
- C: Foam dielectric coaxial cable has lower loss per unit of length
- D: Foam dielectric coaxial cable has lower safe maximum operating voltage

### E9F09

What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

- A: The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
- B: Very low impedance
- (C): Very high impedance
- D: The same as the generator output impedance

### E9F10

What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

- A: A capacitive reactance
- (B): An inductive reactance
- C: The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
- D: Zero

### E9F11

What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is open at the far end?

- A: The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
- (B): A capacitive reactance
- C: An inductive reactance
- D: Infinite

### E9F12

What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is open at the far end?

- A: The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
- B: The same as the input impedance to the generator
- C: Very high impedance
- (D): Very low impedance

### E9G01

Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?

- A: Radio propagation
- B: Antenna radiation pattern
- (C): Impedance along transmission lines
- D: Radiation resistance

### E9G02

What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?

- (A): Resistance circles and reactance arcs
- B: Voltage chords and current chords
- C: Voltage circles and current arcs
- D: Resistance lines and reactance chords

### E9G03

Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

- A: Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
- (B): Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
- C: Point-to-point propagation reliability as a function of frequency
- D: Beam headings and radiation patterns

### E9G04

What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?

- A: Voltage and impedance
- (B): Resistance and reactance
- C: Reactance and voltage
- D: Inductance and capacitance

### E9G05

Which of the following is a common use for a Smith chart?

- A: Determine the gain of an antenna given the physical and electrical parameters
- B: Determine the loss/100 feet of a transmission line, given the velocity factor and conductor materials
- C: Determine the impedance of a transmission line, given the physical dimensions
- (D): Determine the length and position of an impedance matching stub

### E9G06

On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

- A: Impedance axis
- B: Prime axis
- C: Polar axis
- (D): Reactance axis

### E9G07

On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

- A: The voltage axis
- (B): The resistance axis
- C: The current axis
- D: The reactance axis

### E9G08

How is a Smith chart normalized?

- A: Reassign the resistance axis with reactance values
- (B): Reassign the prime center’s impedance value
- C: Reassign the reactance axis with resistance values
- D: Reassign the prime center to the reactance axis

### E9G09

What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of designing impedance matching networks?

- (A): Constant-SWR circles
- B: Radiation-pattern circles
- C: Transmission line length circles
- D: Coaxial-length circles

### E9G10

What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

- A: Frequency
- B: SWR
- C: Points with constant resistance
- (D): Points with constant reactance

### E9G11

In what units are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?

- A: In fractions of transmission line electrical frequency
- (B): In fractions of transmission line electrical wavelength
- C: In fractions of antenna electrical frequency
- D: In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength

### E9H01

When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?

- A: Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength
- B: It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground
- (C): It should be at least one wavelength long
- D: It should be configured as a four-sided loop

### E9H02

Which is generally true for 160- and 80-meter receiving antennas?

- A: They must be erected at least 1/2 wavelength above the ground to attain good directivity
- (B): Atmospheric noise is so high that directivity is much more important than losses
- C: Low loss coax transmission line is essential for good performance
- D: All these choices are correct

### E9H03

What is receiving directivity factor (RDF)?

- A: Forward gain compared to the gain in the reverse direction
- (B): Peak antenna gain compared to average gain over the hemisphere around and above the antenna
- C: Relative directivity compared to isotropic
- D: Relative directivity compared to a dipole

### E9H04

What is the purpose of placing an electrostatic shield around a small-loop direction-finding antenna?

- (A): It eliminates unbalanced capacitive coupling to the antenna’s surroundings, improving the depth of its nulls
- B: It adds capacitive loading, increasing the bandwidth of the antenna
- C: It increases signal strength by providing a better match to the feed line
- D: It eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signals

### E9H05

What challenge is presented by a small wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

- A: All these choices are correct
- (B): It has a bidirectional null pattern
- C: It does not have a clearly defined null
- D: It is practical for use only on VHF and higher bands

### E9H06

What indicates the correct value of terminating resistance for a Beverage antenna?

- (A): Minimum variation in SWR over the desired frequency range
- B: Minimum low-angle front-to-back ratio at the design frequency
- C: Maximum feed point DC resistance at the center of the desired frequency range
- D: Maximum DC current in the terminating resistor

### E9H07

What is the function of a Beverage antenna’s termination resistor?

- A: Eliminate harmonic reception
- B: Decrease SWR bandwidth
- C: Increase the front-to-side ratio
- (D): Absorb signals from the reverse direction

### E9H08

What is the function of a sense antenna?

- A: It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array
- B: It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals
- C: It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles
- (D): It modifies the pattern of a DF antenna to provide a null in only one direction

### E9H09

What type of radiation pattern is created by a single-turn, terminated loop such as a pennant antenna?

- A: Omnidirectional
- B: Hyperbolic
- (C): Cardioid
- D: Bidirectional

### E9H10

How can the output voltage of a multiple-turn receiving loop antenna be increased?

- A: By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
- (B): By increasing the number of turns and/or the area enclosed by the loop
- C: All these choices are correct
- D: By utilizing high impedance wire for the coupling loop

### E9H11

What feature of a cardioid pattern antenna makes it useful for direction-finding antennas?

- A: Broadband response
- B: High radiation angle
- (C): A single null
- D: A very sharp peak

## Subelement E0

### E0A01

What is the primary function of an external earth connection or ground rod?

- A: Protect breaker panel from power surges
- B: Prevent static build up on power lines
- (C): Lightning charge dissipation
- D: Reduce RF current flow between pieces of equipment

### E0A02

When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor’s home, what must you do?

- A: Ensure signals from your station are less than the controlled maximum permissible emission (MPE) limits
- (B): Ensure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limits
- C: Ensure signals from your station are less than the controlled maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limits
- D: Ensure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled maximum permissible emission (MPE) limits

### E0A03

Over what range of frequencies are the FCC human body RF exposure limits most restrictive?

- (A): 30 - 300 MHz
- B: 300 kHz - 3 MHz
- C: 300 - 3000 MHz
- D: 3 - 30 MHz

### E0A04

When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

- A: Each transmitter operating with a duty cycle greater than 50 percent
- B: Each transmitter operating with a duty cycle greater than 25 percent
- (C): Each transmitter that produces 5 percent or more of its MPE limit in areas where the total MPE limit is exceeded
- D: Each transmitter that produces 20 percent or more of its MPE limit in areas where the total MPE limit is exceeded

### E0A05

What hazard is created by operating at microwave frequencies?

- (A): The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
- B: Microwaves are ionizing radiation
- C: Microwaves are in the frequency range where wave velocity is higher
- D: The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures

### E0A06

Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) MPE limits at frequencies below 300 MHz?

- A: Ground reflections and scattering cause the field strength to vary with location
- (B): All these choices are correct
- C: The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields
- D: E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations

### E0A07

What is meant by “100% tie-off” regarding tower safety?

- A: All loose ropes and guys secured to a fixed structure
- B: All tools secured to the climber’s harness
- (C): At least one lanyard attached to the tower at all times
- D: All circuit breakers feeding power to the tower must be tied closed with tape, cable, or ties

### E0A08

What does SAR measure?

- A: The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain
- B: Signal attenuation ratio
- C: Signal amplification rating
- (D): The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body

### E0A09

Which of the following types of equipment are exempt from RF exposure evaluations?

- A: Dish antennas less than one meter in diameter
- (B): Hand-held transceivers sold before May 3, 2021
- C: Antennas that radiate only in the near field
- D: Transceivers with less than 7 watts of RF output

### E0A10

When must an RF exposure evaluation be performed on an amateur station operating on 80 meters?

- A: When the ERP of the station is less than 10 watts
- (B): An evaluation must always be performed
- C: When the output power from the transmitter is less than 100 watts
- D: When the station’s operating mode is CW

### E0A11

To what should lanyards be attached while climbing?

- A: Antenna mast
- (B): Tower legs
- C: Tower rungs
- D: Guy brackets

### E0A12

Where should a shock-absorbing lanyard be attached to a tower when working above ground?

- A: Even with the climber's waist
- (B): Above the climber’s head level
- C: To the belt of the fall-arrest harness
- D: To the next lowest set of guys